This is default featured slide 1 title

Go to Blogger edit html and find these sentences.Now replace these sentences with your own descriptions.This theme is Bloggerized by Lasantha Bandara - Premiumbloggertemplates.com.

This is default featured slide 2 title

Go to Blogger edit html and find these sentences.Now replace these sentences with your own descriptions.This theme is Bloggerized by Lasantha Bandara - Premiumbloggertemplates.com.

This is default featured slide 3 title

Go to Blogger edit html and find these sentences.Now replace these sentences with your own descriptions.This theme is Bloggerized by Lasantha Bandara - Premiumbloggertemplates.com.

This is default featured slide 4 title

Go to Blogger edit html and find these sentences.Now replace these sentences with your own descriptions.This theme is Bloggerized by Lasantha Bandara - Premiumbloggertemplates.com.

This is default featured slide 5 title

Go to Blogger edit html and find these sentences.Now replace these sentences with your own descriptions.This theme is Bloggerized by Lasantha Bandara - Premiumbloggertemplates.com.

Friday, 29 January 2021

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 15

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 14

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 12

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 13

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 11

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10

Every

 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 7

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 8

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 9

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 6

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 3

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 4

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 5

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 2

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 2

Share:

CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 1

CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 1

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 16 - Environmental Issues

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Environmental Issues

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Environmental Issues

Question 1.
Acid Rain comes under which type of pollution?
(a) Water pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) Soil pollution
(d) Sound Pollution

Answer

Answer: (c) Soil pollution


Question 2.
Bhopal gas tragedy of 1884 took place because methyl isocyanate reacted with:
(a) DDT
(b) Ammonia
(c) CO2
(d) Water

Answer

Answer: (c) CO2


Question 3.
Which chemical substance affects the Ozone Layer?
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon
(b) Chlorine
(c) Hexafluorocarbon
(d) Molecular Carbon

Answer

Answer: (a) Chlorofluorocarbon


Question 4.
Chlorofluoro carbon are responsible for:
(a) Acid rain
(b) Ozone layer depletion
(c) Global warming
(d) Thermal inversion

Answer

Answer: (d) Thermal inversion


Question 5.
Fluoride pollution mainly affect:
(a) Teeth
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Heart

Answer

Answer: (a) Teeth


Question 6.
Environment (Protection) Act came into force in?
(a) 1986
(b) 1989
(c) 1992
(d) 1993

Answer

Answer: (c) 1992


Question 7.
In Ozone Degradation which element acts as catalyst?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Flurine
(c) Oxygen
(d) Potassium

Answer

Answer: (a) Chlorine


Question 8.
Nutrient enrichment of water bodies causes:
(a) Stratification
(b) Eutrophication
(c) Succession
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Eutrophication


Question 9.
Ozone Layer is found in :
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Hemisphere

Answer

Answer: (a) Stratosphere


Question 10.
Pollutant which causes acid rain is:
(a) SO2
(b) CO2
(c) CO
(d) Hydrocarbon

Answer

Answer: (a) SO2


Question 11.
Increased skin cancer and high mutation rate are due to:
(a) Acid Rain
(b) Ozone Depletion
(c) CO2 Pollution
(d) CO Pollution

Answer

Answer: (b) Ozone Depletion


Question 12.
Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Methane
(b) CO2
(c) Chlorofluoro carbon
(d) Hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (d) Hydrogen


Question 13.
Minimata disease is caused by:
(a) ByChromium
(b) By Cadmium
(c) By Methyl mercury
(d) By Radioactive elements

Answer

Answer: (c) By Methyl mercury


Question 14.
Permissible noise levels in a residential area at night time is:
(a) 35 dB
(b) 40 dB
(c) 45 dB
(d) 50 dB

Answer

Answer: (c) 45 dB


Question 15.
A mutagenic pollutant is:
(a) Organophosphate
(b) Resines
(c) Hydrocarbons
(d) Nitrogen oxides

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrocarbons


Question 16.
Natural air pollutant are:
(a) Pollen Grains
(b) Gases of Volcanic Eruption
(c) Aerosol
(d) Fluorides

Answer

Answer: (b) Gases of Volcanic Eruption


Question 17.
Rain is called acid rain, its pH is below:
(a) 7
(b) 6.5
(c) 6
(d) 5.6

Answer

Answer: (d) 5.6


Question 18.
Bluebaby syndrome results from:
(a) Excess of TDS
(b) Excess of DO
(c) Excess of chloride
(d) Methaemoglobin

Answer

Answer: (d) Methaemoglobin


Question 19.
Common indicator organism of water pollution is:
(a) Lemna pancicostata
(b) Eichhomia crassipes
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Entamoeba histolytica

Answer

Answer: (c) Escherichia coli


Question 20.
Pollution of SO2 destroys:
(a) Lichen
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) Fish

Answer

Answer: (a) Lichen


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 15 - Biodiversity and Conservation

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Biodiversity and Conservation

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Biodiversity and Conservation

Question 1.
Which type of living organisms given below are listed in Red Data Book”?
(a) Rare species
(b) Rare and endangered species
(c) Endangered species
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Rare and endangered species


Question 2.
Reserve biosphere of Sundarban is situated in which of the following states :
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (d) West Bengal


Question 3.
Bandipurin Karnataka is the site of project:
(a) Elephant
(b) Hangul
(c) Tiger
(d) Peacock

Answer

Answer: (c) Tiger


Question 4.
Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year:
(a) 1996
(b) 1992
(c) 2002
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (c) 2002


Question 5.
Red Data Book is produced by:
(a) IUCN
(b) WWF
(c) IBWL
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) IUCN


Question 6.
Lion-tailed Macaque is found in:
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Caucasus
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Western Himalaya

Answer

Answer: (a) Western Ghats


Question 7.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) Birds
(b) Rhinoceros
(c) Tigers
(d) Crocodiles

Answer

Answer: (c) Tigers


Question 8.
Project tiger in India was started in the year:
(a) 1973
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1986

Answer

Answer: (a) 1973


Question 9.
Lions m India are now found in :
(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Forests of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Forests of Western Ghats
(d) Fir Forests

Answer

Answer: (d) Fir Forests


Question 10.
Dudhwa National Part is located in:
(a) In Himachal Pradesh
(b) In Uttar Pradesh
(c) In Madhya Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) In Uttar Pradesh


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 14 - Ecosystem

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Ecosystem

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Ecosystem

Question 1.
Plant roots soil water is:
(a) Cellular water
(b) Surface water
(c) Humidity water
(d) Gravitational water

Answer

Answer: (d) Gravitational water


Question 2.
Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:
(a) Uticularia
(b) Prapa
(c) Nymphea
(d) Vallisnaria

Answer

Answer: (d) Vallisnaria


Question 3.
Xerophyte Contains:
(a) Deep roots
(b) Sunken stomata
(c) Thick cuticle
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 4.
Soil particle determine the character of:
(a) Organisation
(b) Biomass
(c) Area capacity
(d) Soil plants

Answer

Answer: (a) Organisation


Question 5.
Soil developed from sedimented rock:
(a) Force Science
(b) Edaphology
(c) Pedogenesis
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pedogenesis


Question 6.
Who introduced term Ecosystem?
(a) Leaneous
(b) Reiter
(c) Odum
(d) Aristle

Answer

Answer: (b) Reiter


Question 7.
Small extremite animals of tropicalregion:
(a) Allen’s law
(b) Bergmen’s law
(c) Dollo’s law
(d) Cope’s law

Answer

Answer: (d) Cope’s law


Question 8.
Identity the Hetero Organism:
(a) Pistia
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Vallisnaria
(d) Casurina

Answer

Answer: (c) Vallisnaria


Question 9.
Hibernation of some animals:
(a) Regular
(b) Periodic
(c) Suddenly
(d) Temporary

Answer

Answer: (a) Regular


Question 10.
That animal who can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight is:
(a) Necturus
(b) Camel
(c) Wall Lizzard
(d) Kyton

Answer

Answer: (b) Camel


Question 11.
The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivoure to carnivorce level is :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (b) 10%


Question 12.
Exchange of water in submerged plant:
(a) Stomata
(b) Normal surface
(c) Hydathode
(d) Lenticel

Answer

Answer: (b) Normal surface


Question 13.
Physical and chemical properties of soil studied by :
(a) Climatic factor
(b) Biotic factor
(c) Soil factor
(d) Topographic factor

Answer

Answer: (b) Biotic factor


Question 14.
Root hair absent in:
(a) Hydrophyte
(b) Halophyte
(c) Mesophyte
(d) Heliophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Hydrophyte


Question 15.
A water co-efficient Mesophyte is:
(a) Cappais
(b) Agave
(c) Acacia
(d) Hemeris

Answer

Answer: (b) Agave


Question 16.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) For Birds
(b) For Tendua
(c) For Tiger
(d) For Crocodile

Answer

Answer: (b) For Tendua


Question 17.
During food chain the maximum energy is stored in :
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Herbivoures
(d) Camivourse

Answer

Answer: (a) Producers


Question 18.
Ecological pyramids were first devised by:
(a) Charles Eltom
(b) R. Hesse
(c) R.A. Lindemann
(d) Justus von Liebig

Answer

Answer: (a) Charles Eltom


Question 19.
Gravitated carried soil is:
(a) Alluvial
(b) Muddy
(c) Glacier
(d) Compound

Answer

Answer: (d) Compound


Question 20.
Which of the following ecosystem has highest gross primary productivity:
(a) Grassland
(b) Coral reefs
(c) Mangrooves
(d) Rainforests

Answer

Answer: (b) Coral reefs


Question 21.
Which types of the following pyramid are never inverted?
(a) Pyramid of energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Pyramid of dry biomass

Answer

Answer: (a) Pyramid of energy


Question 22.
Best soil for plant growth is:
(a) Grit
(b) Sandy
(c) Soily
(d) Clay

Answer

Answer: (d) Clay


Question 23.
Water co-deficient contains:
(a) Large thin walled cells
(b) Large-vacuoles
(c) Membrane
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Membrane


Question 24.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramid?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight

Answer

Answer: (a) Dry weight


Question 25.
Biosphere means:
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Lithosphere and ionosphered
(c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
(d) Hydrosphere lithosphere and ionsophere

Answer

Answer: (c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere


Question 26.
In the phosphorus cycle, weathring makes phosophate available first to:
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Producers


Question 27.
Best type of pyramid which is always true is:
(a) Pyramid or energy
(b) Pyramid of Biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (a) Pyramid or energy


Question 28.
The largest ecosystem is :
(a) Forest ecosystem
(b) Marine ecosystem
(c) Pond ecosystem
(d) Grassland ecosystem

Answer

Answer: (b) Marine ecosystem


Question 29.
Ecology deals with:
(a) The arth and plants
(b) The relationship between organisms and their environment
(c) Economical growth of poor people
(d) The life under sea

Answer

Answer: (b) The relationship between organisms and their environment


Question 30.
More than 70 of world freshwater is contain in:
(a) Antarctica
(b) Glaciers and mountains
(c) Greenland
(d) Polar ice

Answer

Answer: (c) Greenland


Question 31.
Decomposers are:
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Autohetrotrophs
(c) Organotrophs
(d) Heterotrophs

Answer

Answer: (d) Heterotrophs


Question 32.
Which one of the following pair is mismatched?
(a) Prairies-Epiphytes
(b) Tundra-Permafrost
(c) Savannaha-Acacia trees
(d) Coniferous forests-Evergreen trees)

Answer

Answer: (a) Prairies-Epiphytes


Question 33.
Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(a) Mountain
(b) Desert
(c) Forest
(d) Ocean

Answer

Answer: (b) Desert


Question 34.
What is the main cause of extinction of some species in tropical forests?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion

Answer

Answer: (a) Deforestation


Question 35.
Primary succession occurs in :
(a) Primary succession occurs
(b) Previously unoccupied area
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Previously unoccupied area


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 13 - Organisms and Populations

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Organisms and Populations

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Organisms and Populations

Question 1.
Water holding capacity is maximum in:
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) Gravel

Answer

Answer: (a) Clay


Question 2.
Submerged hydrophytes havedisseced leaves for:
(a) Decreasing surface area
(b) Increasing surface area
(c) Reducing effect pf water currents
(d) Increasing number of stomata

Answer

Answer: (c) Reducing effect pf water currents


Question 3.
Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called :
(a) Acclimatisation
(b) Hibernation
(c) Aestivation
(d) Adapatation

Answer

Answer: (b) Hibernation


Question 4.
Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example:
(a) Colour change in Chameleon
(b) Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
(c) Poison fangas of snakes
(d) Melaninin in moths

Answer

Answer: (c) Poison fangas of snakes


Question 5.
Praying mantis is a good example of:
(a) Camouflage
(b) Mullarian mimicry
(c) Warning colouration
(d) Social insect

Answer

Answer: (a) Camouflage


Question 6.
Niche overlap is:
(a) Mutualism between two species
(b) Active cooperation between two species
(c) Tjvo different parasites on same food
(d) Sharing resources between two species

Answer

Answer: (d) Sharing resources between two species


Question 7.
Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its:
(a) Topography
(b) Trophic level
(c) Boundary
(d) Ecological niche

Answer

Answer: (d) Ecological niche


Question 8.
Science linking heredity with environment is:
(a) Ecology
(b) Ecophysiology
(c) Genecology
(d) Genetics

Answer

Answer: (c) Genecology


Question 9.
Ozone protects biosphere from high energetic:
(a) Infra-red rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) gamma rays

Answer

Answer: (b) Ultraviolet rays


Question 10.
The maximum growth rate occurs in :
(a) Lag phase
(b) Exponential, phase
(c) Stationary phase
(d) Senescent phase

Answer

Answer: (b) Exponential, phase


Question 11.
Plants growing in saline soil with high salt concentration are:
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Heliophytes
(d) Hydrophytes

Answer

Answer: (b) Halophytes


Question 12.
Avicennia, Rhizophora andAtriplex are:
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Mesophytes

Answer

Answer: (b) Halophytes


Question 13.
Maximum amounts of humus occurs on:
(a) In lower most layer
(b) In upper layer
(c) In Middle layer
(d) Same everywhere

Answer

Answer: (b) In upper layer


Question 14.
In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface veiw most?
(a) Shrub land
(b) Forest
(c) Desert
(d) Grassland

Answer

Answer: (c) Desert


Question 15.
Mycorrhiza is an example to:
(a) Decomposers
(b) Endoparasitism
(c) Symbiotic relationship
(d) Ectoparasitism

Answer

Answer: (c) Symbiotic relationship


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 12 - Biotechnology and its Applications

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Biotechnology and its Applications

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Biotechnology and its Applications

Question 1.
By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:
(a) Inhibition of a Innate gene
(b) An occured Biosynthetic passway develop
(c) A protein occured with genotype expressed his desired
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Question 2.
Adjoining of exotic gene is crop is called :
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Bio architecture
(c) Tissue culture
(d) Immunisation

Answer

Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering


Question 3.
Transgenic Golden Rice Highly Nutrient value for:
(a) Lysine
(b) Methionine
(c) Glutanin
(d) Vitamin-A

Answer

Answer: (d) Vitamin-A


Question 4.
In a Transgenic crop gene for following:
(a) New protein synthesis
(b) Resistance from Antibiotics
(c) In the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 5.
Transgenic Bacteria and m the making of following :
(a) Epinephrin
(b) Human Insullin
(c) Glutanin
(d) Thyroxin

Answer

Answer: (b) Human Insullin


Question 6.
Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from:
(a) One parent for one antigen
(b) Different parents for one antigen
(c) One parent for many antigens
(d) Many parents for many antigens

Answer

Answer: (b) Different parents for one antigen


Question 7.
B7 Toxsin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystal protein
(c) Extracellular Crystal protein
(d) Lipid

Answer

Answer: (b) Intracellular crystal protein


Question 8.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By cell culture
(d) ByPollen culture

Answer

Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion


Question 9.
Which one of the following is a step of PCR?
(a) Denaturation
(b) Annealing
(c) Extension
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Denaturation


Question 10.
Restriction Endonuclease used in RDT obtained from:
(a) Plasmid
(b) Bacterial ceils
(c) Bacterophages
(d) All Prokaryotic cells

Answer

Answer: (b) Bacterial ceils


Question 11.
The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:
(a) Bacillus thruingiensis
(b) E. Coii
(c) Agrobacterium hizogenes
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer

Answer: (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens


Question 12.
Which Vitamin has been transferred to golden rice?
(a) Vit-B12
(b) Vit-A
(c) Vit-D
(d) Vit-C

Answer

Answer: (b) Vit-A


Question 13.
From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared.
(a) Cymohopogen
(b) Tephrosia
(c) Crysanthemum
(d) Vitivera

Answer

Answer: (c) Crysanthemum


Question 14.
Biopiracy is related to the following:
(a) Traditional knowledge
(b) Biomolecules and Bioresources, Isolation of gene from Bioresources
(c) Bioresources
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 15.
The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s:
(a) Udder
(b) Skin
(c) Tongue
(d) Earlobe

Answer

Answer: (c) Tongue


Question 16.
Recombinant DNA technology discovered by:
(a) Hargobind Khoorana
(b) James D. Watsan
(c) S. Kohen and H. Boer
(d) Sulton and Boveri

Answer

Answer: (c) S. Kohen and H. Boer


Question 17.
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trail:
(a) Insec resistance
(b) Hight lysine (essential amino acid) content
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin A content

Answer

Answer: (c) High protein content


Question 18.
The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDA is:
(a) ELISA
(b) Western Plot
(c) ESR
(d) PCR

Answer

Answer: (a) ELISA


Question 19.
Some bacterial occured B-7 Toxin’s crystal not kill the Bacteria because of:
(a) Bacteria is Antoxin
(b) Toxin is unripened
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Bacteria enclosed toxin a special sell

Answer

Answer: (c) Toxin is inactive


Question 20.
Natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas sp.
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer

Answer: (a) Bacillus subtilis


Question 21.
First Transjenic crop was :
(a) Cotton
(b) Alsi
(c) Pea
(d) Tobacco

Answer

Answer: (d) Tobacco


Question 22.
Bt toxin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystalline protein
(c) Extracellular crystalline protein
(d) Lipid

Answer

Answer: (a) Intracellular lipid


Question 23.
Desired properties plants and Animals are possible by Which reproduction.
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Chromosomal Engineering
(c) Ekabana technology
(d) Bonsai technology

Answer

Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering


Question 24.
First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering:
(a) Human insulin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Interferons
(d) Fertility factor

Answer

Answer: (b) Penicillin


Question 25.
Anticoagulant hirudin is found in:
(a) In Snake
(b) In Lizard
(c) In Leech
(d) In Scorpion

Answer

Answer: (c) In Leech


Question 26.
The species used as natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Agrobacterim tumefaciens
(b) Bacillus thruingiensis
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Drosophila

Answer

Answer: (d) Drosophila


Question 27.
Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel:
(a) Biofertilizers
(b) Biometallurgical techniques
(c) Biomineralization processes
(d) Bioinsecticidal plants

Answer

Answer: (a) Biofertilizers


Question 28.
Most widely used Bioweapon is:
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Biometallurgial techniques
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Bioinsecticidal plant

Answer

Answer: (d) Bioinsecticidal plant


Question 29.
A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is:
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) DNA finger printing
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) DNA finger printing


Question 30.
Herbicide resistant gene in plants is:
(a) Ct
(b) Mt
(c) Bt
(d) Gst

Answer

Answer: (d) Gst


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 11 - Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Question 1.
Plasmid is a:
(a) Fungus
(b) Plasmid
(c) Part of Plasma membrane
(d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell

Answer

Answer: (d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell


Question 2.
DNA obtained for DNA finger printing:
(a) W.B.C.
(b) Hair root cells
(c) Body fluids
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) W.B.C.


Question 3.
Who discovered Restricted endonucleas enzymes?
(a) Smith and Nathane
(b) Baiger
(c) Waxman
(d) Fleming

Answer

Answer: (a) Smith and Nathane


Question 4.
Restriction endonuclease cuts:
(a) One stand of DNA at specific site
(b) Both strands of DNA
(c) Both strands of DNA at any site
(d) Single strand of RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) Both strands of DNA


Question 5.
Triticale, first man made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with:
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl millet
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley

Answer

Answer: (d) Barley


Question 6.
Restrictipn endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from :
(a) Plasmids
(b) AH prokaryotic cells
(c) Bacteriophages
(d) Bacterial cells

Answer

Answer: (d) Bacterial cells


Question 7.
Two microbes found tb be very useful in Genetic Engineering are:
(a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Vibrio cholarae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(d) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabdities elegans

Answer

Answer: (a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens


Question 8.
Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :
(a) High lysin content
(b) Pest resistance
(c) High protien content
(d) High vitamin A content

Answer

Answer: (d) High vitamin A content


Question 9.
Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic, engineering are:
(a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Virbio chloerae and tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp and pseudomonas sp.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens


Question 10.
Transgenic plants are develop by:
(a) Introducing of foreign fenes
(b) Clone and genetically modified genes
(c) Genetic engineering
(d) Purified genes

Answer

Answer: (a) Introducing of foreign fenes


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10 - Microbes in Human Welfare

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Microbes in Human Welfare

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Microbes in Human Welfare

Question 1.
Usnic acid is an antibiotic obtained from :
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Lichens
(d) Algae

Answer

Answer: (c) Lichens


Question 2.
By anobacteria are useful biofertilizers in the; field of:
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (c) Rice


Question 3.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel:
(a) Bio-metallurigcal techniques
(b) Bio-mineralization process
(c) Bio-insecticidal plants
(d) Bio-fertilizers

Answer

Answer: (c) Bio-insecticidal plants


Question 4.
Term antibiotic was first used by :
(a) Flemming
(b) Pasteur
(c) Waksman
(d) Lister

Answer

Answer: (c) Waksman


Question 5.
Citric acid is produced by:
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Saccharomyces

Answer

Answer: (a) Rhizopus


Question 6.
Streptomycin is produced by:
(a) By Streptomyces Scoleus
(b) By Streptomyces fradiae
(c) By Streptomyces venezueleae
(d) By Streptomyces griseus

Answer

Answer: (d) By Streptomyces griseus


Question 7.
For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe is:
(a) Methanophilic bacteria
(b) Butyric acid bacteria
(c) Helicobactor pylon
(d) Streptococcus lactin

Answer

Answer: (b) Butyric acid bacteria


Question 8.
Antibiotics are:
(a) Medicines
(b) Toxin
(c) Plants
(d) Syrups

Answer

Answer: (a) Medicines


Question 9.
A free living anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Clostridium

Answer

Answer: (d) Clostridium


Question 10.
Azoila has symbiotic relationship with:
(a) Chlotfila
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Tolypothrix

Answer

Answer: (b) Anabaena


Question 11.
In nostoc, enzyme nitrogenase occurs in :
(a) Vegetative cells
(b) Heterocysts
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only in hormogones

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 12.
A free-living aerobic and non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Anabaena
(b) Clostridium
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Rhizobium

Answer

Answer: (c) Azotobactor


Question 13.
Streptococcus is used in the preparation of:
(a) Wine
(b) Idli
(c) Paneer
(d) Bread

Answer

Answer: (c) Paneer


Question 14.
Nif gene occurs in:
(a) Peiiicillium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Streptococcus

Answer

Answer: (b) Rhizobium


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 9 - Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Question 1.
India’s w heat yield revolution in the 1986s was possible primarily due to:
(a) Mutations resulting in the plant height reduction
(b) Quantitative trait mutations
(c) Hybrid seeds
(d) Increased chlorophyll content

Answer

Answer: (c) Hybrid seeds


Question 2.
Choose the cat fish from the following:
(a) Katla Katla
(b) Wallage attu
(c) Labeo rohita
(d) Cirrhinus mrigaja

Answer

Answer: (b) Wallage attu


Question 3.
Zoological name of Indian buffalo is:
(a) Bubalus bubalus
(b) Bos indicus
(c) Bos taurus
(d) Gallusgallus

Answer

Answer: (a) Bubalus bubalus


Question 4.
Most cultivated plants are:
(a) Autopolyploid
(b) Allopolyploid
(c) Aneuploids
(d) Haploids

Answer

Answer: (b) Allopolyploid


Question 5.
Both in callus and suspension culture commonly used auxin is:
(a) NAA
(b) IEA
(c) 2-4D
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: (c) 2-4D


Question 6.
One of the following is a disease of poultry:
(a) Anthrax
(b) Pebrine disease
(c) Ranikhet disease
(d) Foot and mouth disease

Answer

Answer: (c) Ranikhet disease


Question 7.
Triticale first main-made corral crop has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl mille
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley

Answer

Answer: (a) Rye


Question 8.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By Cell culture
(d) By Totipotency

Answer

Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion


Question 9.
Norman Borlaugh known as “Father of Green Revolution” has developed new cultivating variety of:
(a) Paddy
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (c) Wheat


Question 10.
The best milk breed in the world is:
(a) Chittgong
(b) Deoni
(c) Holstein-Friesian
(d) Sindhi

Answer

Answer: (c) Holstein-Friesian


Question 11.
Most nutritious among the following is:
(a) What
(b) Maize
(c) Pearley
(d) Rice

Answer

Answer: (c) Pearley


Question 12.
The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called :
(a) Organ culture
(b) Micro-propagation
(c) Macro-propagation
(d) Plantlet culture

Answer

Answer: (b) Micro-propagation


Question 13.
The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is :
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Goat-sheep cross
(d) Mashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross

Answer

Answer: (b) Goat


Question 14.
Hybrid vagour is induced by:
(a) By Clonal selection
(b) By Crossing of plant
(c) By crossing of two plants
(d) By Species differentiation

Answer

Answer: (c) By crossing of two plants


Question 15.
There crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are :
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) Wheat rice and barley
(c) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(d) Rice, maize and sorghum

Answer

Answer: (a) Wheat, rice and maize


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 8 - Human Health and Disease

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – Human Health and Disease

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – Human Health and Disease

Question 1.
Following is Hallucinator
(a) LSD
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocein
(d) Morphin

Answer

Answer: (a) LSD


Question 2.
By the plant of which family Heroin is obtained?
(a) Leguminaceae
(b) Papa Veraceae
(c) Liliaece
(d) Solanaceae

Answer

Answer: (b) Papa Veraceae


Question 3.
Opiates are obtained from
(a) Thea sinesis
(b) Coffea Arabica
(c) Oryzasativa
(d) Papaver Seminiferum

Answer

Answer: (d) Papaver Seminiferum


Question 4.
Which organ of body is most affected by excessive intake of alcohol?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Spleen

Answer

Answer: (b) Liver


Question 5.
PCR is test for:
(a) HIV
(b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) HIV


Question 6.
Common cold is caused by:
(a) Retro virus
(b) Phage virus
(c) Rhino virus
(d) Sendai virus

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhino virus


Question 7.
Following which is STD:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis

Answer

Answer: (d) Syphilis


Question 8.
Pain-killer drugs:
(a) Makes Tissue
(b) Relieve from pain
(c) Relieve from tired
(d) Pain creater

Answer

Answer: (c) Relieve from tired


Question 9.
AIDS occur by which cause?
(a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
(b) Reduction of Killer T-cells
(c) Auto immune
(d) Less production of interferon

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduction of T-Helper cells


Question 10.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filaria in human being. It is of which group:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth

Answer

Answer: (d) Helminth


Question 11.
Which of the following is the cancer of blood?
(a) Sarcoma
(b) Lymphoms
(c) Leukemia
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Leukemia


Question 12.
Gonorrhoea is caused by:
(a) By Treponema pallidium
(b) By Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) By Mycobacterium taprae
(d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Answer: (d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae


Question 13.
Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) By Sand fly
(b) By Tsetse fly
(c) By House fly
(d) By Mosquitoes

Answer

Answer: (a) By Sand fly


Question 14.
Antigen-binding site in an antibody, is found between:
(a) Two light chains
(b) Two heavy chains
(c) One heavy and one light chain
(d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Answer

Answer: (d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain


Question 15.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is:
(a) TB
(b) AIDS
(c) Tetanus
(d) Food Poisoning

Answer

Answer: (c) Tetanus


Question 16.
Immune deficiency symdrome is caused by:
(a) Defected liver
(b) Defected thymus
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Loss of Immune system

Answer

Answer: (c) AIDS Virus


Question 17.
Heroin is the form of :
(a) Aesthetic
(b) Hallucination
(c) Irritation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Hallucination


Question 18.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to:
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Live cirrhosis
(c) State of hellucination
(d) Suppresion of brain function

Answer

Answer: (b) Live cirrhosis


Question 19.
Widal test is done to confirm:
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer

Answer

Answer: (b) Typhoid


Question 20.
World AIDS day is:
(a) 1 May
(b) 20 December
(c) 1 June
(d) 1 December

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 December


Question 21.
Which part of poppy plant yields opium:
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dired seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Latex from unripe capsules


Question 22.
Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:
(a) Pain Killer
(b) Tranquillizer
(c) Hallucination
(d) Stimulant

Answer

Answer: (d) Stimulant


Question 23.
Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Monocytes
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes

Answer

Answer: (d) Lymphocytes


Question 24.
Opium is:
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin

Answer

Answer: (c) Heroin


Question 25.
AIDS caused by:
(a) By fungus
(b) By Virus
(c) By Bacteria
(d) By Helminthes

Answer

Answer: (b) By Virus


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 7 - Evolution

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – Evolution

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – Evolution

Question 1.
Book ‘Philosophique Zoologique’ was written by:
(a) Lamarck
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Hugo-devries

Answer

Answer: (a) Lamarck


Question 2.
Missing link in evolution is:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Limulus
(c) Peripatus
(d) Archaeopterys

Answer

Answer: (d) Archaeopterys


Question 3.
Theory of Pangenesis was given by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) DeVries

Answer

Answer: (a) Darwin


Question 4.
Which one of the following phenomenon supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
(b) Production of‘Dolly the sheep’ by cloning
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(d) Development of organs from ‘Stem cells’ for organ transplantation

Answer

Answer: (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects


Question 5.
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
(a) Ontogeny
(b) Phytogeny
(c) Ancestry
(d) Palaentolgy

Answer

Answer: (b) Phytogeny


Question 6.
The biogenetic law of Haeckel is:
(a) Ominis vivum-e-eellula
(b) Omminis cellula-e-cellula
(c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny
(d) Phytogeny repeats ontogeny

Answer

Answer: (c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny


Question 7.
Hardy-Weinberg principle explains :
(a) Chromosomal
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Genetic equilibrium
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Genetic equilibrium


Question 8.
As per Neo-Darwinism, which is mainly responsible for evolution?
(a) Mutation
(b) Natural drift
(c) Both of these
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural drift


Question 9.
Wings of Butterfly and birds are:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Analogous organs


Question 10.
Dispersal of population depends on:
(a) On immigration
(b) On Emigration
(c) On Migration
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 6 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 1.
The ratio constant for a species is :
(a) T+C/G + A
(b) A+C/T + G
(c) G + G/A + T
(d) A + C/C + T

Answer

Answer: (b) A+C/T + G


Question 2.
DNA repairing is done by:
(a) By DNA polymerase I
(b) By DNA Polymerase II
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) By Ligase

Answer

Answer: (b) By DNA Polymerase II


Question 3.
Represser Lac-Operon protein attached to:
(a) Operator
(b) Inducer
(c) Regulator
(d) β-Glacto sidase

Answer

Answer: (b) Inducer


Question 4.
A ribotide is made up of:
(a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
(b) Deoxribose + Uracil + Phosphate
(c) Thymine + Ribose + Phosphate
(d) Deoxyribpse + Phosphate + Adenine

Answer

Answer: (a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil


Question 5.
DNA fragments are joined in a correct sequence by :
(a) DNA ligase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase

Answer

Answer: (b) RNA polymerase


Question 6.
the enzyme involved in transcription is:
(a) DNA Polymerase I
(b) DNA Polymerase II
(c) RNA Polymerase
(d) DNA Polymerase

Answer

Answer: (d) DNA Polymerase


Question 7.
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that:
(a) One strand turns clockwise
(b) One strand turns anticlockwise
(c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position
(d) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

Answer

Answer: (c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position


Question 8.
Following is important in Ïranscription:
(a) DNA Methylase
(b) CAAT Box
(c) Promotar
(d) DNA Polymerase

Answer

Answer: (a) DNA Methylase


Question 9.
One turn of the helix in p-from DNA is approximately:
(a) 20 Å
(b) 2 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 34 nm

Answer

Answer: (d) 34 nm


Question 10.
Which one is mainly transcribed:
(a) Only RNA sequence
(b) Middle repetitive DNA sequence
(c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence
(d) Single copy of DNA sequence

Answer

Answer: (c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence


Question 11.
Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of?
(a) c-DNA
(b) r-RNA
(c) f-RNA
(d) m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) r-RNA


Question 12.
DNA multiplication is also called:
(a) Replication
(b) Transduction
(c) Translation
(d) Transcription

Answer

Answer: (b) Transduction


Question 13.
One of these is not prepared directly from DNA
(a) m-RNA
(b) f-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) Protein

Answer

Answer: (d) Protein


Question 14.
During Protein synthesis, atone point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which any one of the three could bring about this halt:
(a) UUC, UUA, UAC
(b) UAG, UGA, UAA
(c) UUE, UCA, UCG
(d) UUU, UCC, UAU

Answer

Answer: (b) UAG, UGA, UAA


Question 15.
During splicing axon attached and inducer enzyme for reaction:
(a) RNA Ligase
(b) RNA Catalase
(c) RNA permease
(d) RNA poloymerase

Answer

Answer: (b) RNA Catalase


Question 16.
Which is not component of lac operon:
(a) Primer gene
(b) Promoter gene
(c) constructive gene
(d) Regulator gene

Answer

Answer: (c) constructive gene


Question 17.
Okazaki fregments is:
(a) RNA primer
(b) small segments of DNA on leading stand
(c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand


Question 18.
Transposons occur in:
(a) In Eukaryotes
(b) In Prokaryotes
(c) In both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) In both (a) and (b)


Question 19.
Anticodon found in:
(a) On DNA
(b) On t-RNA
(c) On r-RNA
(d) On m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) On t-RNA


Question 20.
In DNA helix:
(a) Quadrate structure
(b) Polarity
(c) Antiparallel Polarity
(d) Disuiphide bond

Answer

Answer: (c) Antiparallel Polarity


Question 21.
Coiling of DNA duplex is:
(a) Left-handed
(b) Right-handed
(c) Parallel
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Parallel


Question 22.
Inprokaryotic translation, GTP molecule required in at:
(a) Formation of formyl-met-f-RNA
(b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA
(c) Joining of 30S m-RNA on Formyl-met-f-RNA
(d) Joining of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

Answer

Answer: (b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA


Question 23.
During DNA synthesis formed segment is:
(a) Polymerase fragment
(b) RNA fragment
(c) Okazaki fragment
(d) RNA Primer

Answer

Answer: (c) Okazaki fragment


Question 24.
DNA double helix model was given by:
(a) Knoll and Ruska
(b) Khorana
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Priestley

Answer

Answer: (c) Watson and Crick


Question 25.
In a give DNA segment ATC ACC AGG ACC CCA ACA, the first base gets mutated. The effect of this on coding by the DNA segment will result in :
(a) One amino acid less in protein
(b) No change in the sequence
(c) Complete change in the type and sequence of amino acid
(d) Change in first amino acid only

Answer

Answer: (b) No change in the sequence


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 5 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 1.
Two genes very close on a chromosome will show:
(a) No crossing over
(b) High crossing over
(c) Hardly an crossing over
(d) Only double crossing overy

Answer

Answer: (a) No crossing over


Question 2.
First geneticist/father of genetics was:
(a) de Vries
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Morgan

Answer

Answer: (b) Mendel


Question 3.
Cause of chromosomal mutation:
(a) Euploidy
(b) Polyploidy
(c) Physical effect
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 4.
An lndividual with into identical alleles is:
(a) Hybrid
(b) Dominant
(c) Homozygous
(d) Heterozygous

Answer

Answer: (c) Homozygous


Question 5.
Mendal’s law can be applicable only when:
(a) Characters are linked
(b) Parents are pore breed
(c) F1 generation in monohybrid cross show 2 type of individuals
(d) Onepair of contiasting characters depends on another pair

Answer

Answer: (a) Characters are linked


Question 6.
A true hybrid condition is:
(a) tt Rr
(b) Tt rr
(c) tt rr
(d) Tt Rr

Answer

Answer: (c) tt rr


Question 7.
When F1 plants heterozygous for tallness are selfed F2, generation has both tall and dwarf plants. This proves the principle of:
(a) Dominance
(b) Blended inheritance
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (c) Law of segregation


Question 8.
The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called :
(a) Co-dominant
(b) Supplementary
(c) Complementary
(d) Recessive

Answer

Answer: (d) Recessive


Question 9.
Most of the mutations are:
(a) Recessive
(b) Harmful
(c) Germinal
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Recessive


Question 10.
Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is :
(a) Recon
(b) Cistron
(c) Muton
(d) Exon

Answer

Answer: (c) Muton


Question 11.
Genes located on V-chroinosome are:
(a) Mutant genes
(b) Autosomal genes
(c) Holandric genes
(d) Sex-linked genes

Answer

Answer: (d) Sex-linked genes


Question 12.
A strong mutagen is:
(a) Cold
(b) Heat
(c) Water
(d) X-rays

Answer

Answer: (d) X-rays


Question 13.
A point mutation is:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickel-cell anaemia
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Nightblindness

Answer

Answer: (b) Sickel-cell anaemia


Question 14.
An organism with two unlike genes of a trait is called :
(a) Homozygous
(b) Hetrozygous
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Hetrozygous


Question 15.
Mendel’s formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of:
(a) Test cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Monohybrid cross
(d) Dihybrid cross

Answer

Answer: (c) Monohybrid cross


Question 16.
Mendel’s second law is of the law of:
(a) Segregation
(b) Dominance
(c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (d) Independent assortment


Question 17.
Name the scientist who discovered the law of Heredity :
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Newton
(c) Piinnett
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Gregor Mendel


Question 18.
tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring:
(a) 75% Ineffective
(b) 50% Uneffective
(c) 25% Uneffective
(d) All Effective

Answer

Answer: (b) 50% Uneffective


Question 19.
Mendel’s laws were discovered by:
(a) Correns
(b) Shermak
(c) de meris
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 20.
Sucess of mendal is
(a) Selection of Peaplant
(b) Studied of free characters
(c) More Characters selection
(d) Pea is Bisexual

Answer

Answer: (a) Selection of Peaplant


Question 21.
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division Cycle result in the gain or loss of a cromosome (s) is called :
(a) Female heterogamety
(b) Male heterogamety
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Female heterogamety


Question 22.
Loss of Melanin pigment cause for:
(a) Colourblindness
(b) Depigmentation
(c) Phenyl Ketoneuria
(d) Alkaptoneuria

Answer

Answer: (b) Depigmentation


Question 23.
Gunetical identification of male human is:
(a) By Nucleus
(b) By cells
(c) By Autosome
(d) By Sex-chromosome

Answer

Answer: (d) By Sex-chromosome


Question 24.
Mendel worked on :
(a) Edible pea
(b) Wild pea
(c) Garden Pea
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Edible pea


Question 25.
Exception of Mendel’s law is:
(a) Dominance
(b) Purity of gametes
(c) Linkage
(d) Independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (c) Linkage


Question 26.
Rh+ individual gene may be:
(a) rr
(b) TT
(c) Rr
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (c) Rr


Question 27.
Down’s syndrome is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) can be both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Chromosomal disorder


Question 28.
Haemophilia is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) Can be (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Mendelian disorder


Question 29.
Mendal was born in:
(a) 17th century
(b) 18th century
(c) 19th century
(d) 8th century

Answer

Answer: (a) 17th century


Question 30.
A gamete contains which of the following :
(a) Both alleles of a gene
(b) Only one allele of a gene
(c) Al allele of a gene
(d) No allele

Answer

Answer: (b) Only one allele of a gene


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 4 - Reproductive Health

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Reproductive Health

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Reproductive Health

Question 1.
Central drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named?
(a) Mala-D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms

Answer

Answer: (c) Saheli


Question 2.
Which of these is cause by a retrovirus
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis

Answer

Answer: (b) AIDS


Question 3.
Fssay on Population was published by :
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Malthus
(d) Hugo de vries

Answer

Answer: (c) Malthus


Question 4.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract

Answer

Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus


Question 5.
The birth control device not used by women is?
(a) Diaphrame
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper-T

Answer

Answer: (c) Nirodh


Question 6.
Test-tube baby is a technique where :
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted


Question 7.
Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:
(a) Population density
(b) Population crash
(c) Population explosion
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Population crash


Question 8.
Amniocentesis is a process to:
(a) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(b) Know about diseases of brain
(c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo


Question 9.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?
(a) Coitus intrruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea

Answer

Answer: (b) Periodic abstinence


Question 10.
A method of both control is:
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-T
(d) IUDs

Answer

Answer: (d) IUDs


Question 11.
The pre-natal technique to determine the gem. tic disorders in a foetus in called :
(a) Laprosocopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts

Answer

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis


Question 12.
Surgical removed of testis of male of control the human population is:
(a) Castration
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Laparoscopy
(d) Vasectomy

Answer

Answer: (a) Castration


Question 13.
Which is related to makes?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy


Question 14.
Drug Ru-486 is used as :
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abortive agent
(c) Amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen

Answer

Answer: (b) Abortive agent


Question 15.
‘Saheli’ a female antifertility pill, is used:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Monthly

Answer

Answer: (a) Daily


Question 16.
In India, first consus was conducted in:
(a) 1851
(b) 1891
(c) 1921
(d) 1951

Answer

Answer: (b) 1891


Question 17.
The most effective method for birth control is:
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization

Answer

Answer: (d) Sterilization


Question 18.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Ovulation
(c) Formation of embryo on the wall of Uterus
(d) Interrupt reproductive duct

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovulation


Question 19.
Progesteron in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation


Question 20.
Lactational Amenorrhoea is related to :
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of menstruation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) ASTD name

Answer

Answer: (a) Temporary method of contraception


 

Share:

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 3 - Human Reproduction

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Human Reproduction

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Human Reproduction

Question 1.
The cavity of blastula Is:
(a) Blastocoel
(b) Coelome
(c) Archentron
(d) Homocoel

Answer

Answer: (b) Coelome


Question 2.
The tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Mammary duct
(d) Hymen

Answer

Answer: (a) Clitoris


Question 3.
An accessery genital gland of man is:
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Seminal gland
(c) Cowper’s gland
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 4.
Sertolicells present in:
(a) In liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Ovary
(d) in Pancreatic gland

Answer

Answer: (b) In Testis


Question 5.
Ovaries produce the female gamete called :
(a) Sperm
(b) Oviducts
(c) Ovum
(d) Prostate

Answer

Answer: (c) Ovum


Question 6.
The last part of the oviduct is called :
(a) Isthumus
(b) Ampulla
(c) Fimbriae
(d) Infundibulum

Answer

Answer: (a) Isthumus


Question 7.
The finger-like projections in the infundibulum are called:
(a) Fimbriae
(b) Ampulla
(c) Isthmus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Fimbriae


Question 8.
The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Isthmus
(d) Hymen

Answer

Answer: (d) Hymen


Question 9.
Milk is sucked out from the:
(a) Mammary lobes
(b) Mammary glands
(c) Mammary ducts
(d) Lactiferous duct

Answer

Answer: (d) Lactiferous duct


Question 10.
Ovaries are found in the:
(a) In male reproductive system
(b) In Female reproductive system
(c) Can be both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) In Female reproductive system


Question 11.
The male reproductive system in located in the :
(a) In Pelvis region
(b) In Thoracic region
(c) In Back region
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In Pelvis region


Question 12.
The uterus is single and it is also called :
(a) Fimbrae
(b) Isthmue
(c) Ampulla
(d) Womb

Answer

Answer: (d) Womb


Question 13.
The cells which synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called endrogens are:
(a) Germ cells
(b) Ledig cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Germ cells


Question 14.
Graafian follice occur:
(a) In humanithyroid
(b) In human female’s ovary
(c) In frog’s ovary
(d) In Rabbits testis

Answer

Answer: (c) In frog’s ovary


Question 15.
The grandular tissue of each breast of each breast in divided into 15-20:
(a) Mammary ducts
(b) Mammary glands
(c) mammary lobes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) mammary lobes


Question 16.
Leydigicell found in.
(a) In liver
(b) In testis
(c) In kidney
(d) In intestine

Answer

Answer: (b) In testis


Question 17.
The nature male germ cells produce sperms by :
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Spermatids
(c) Spermination
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Spermatogenesis


Question 18.
In mammals male hormones are produced in:
(a) In Liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Kidney
(d) In Lungs

Answer

Answer: (b) In Testis


Question 19.
Gestation period in human female:
(a) 30 Days
(b) 90 Days
(c) 9 Months
(d) 7 Months

Answer

Answer: (c) 9 Months


Question 20.
Androgens stimulate the process of?
(a) Body
(b) Head
(c) Tail
(d) Spermatogenesis

Answer

Answer: (d) Spermatogenesis


Question 21.
First Menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called:
(a) Ovum
(b) Sperm
(c) Menses
(d) Menarche

Answer

Answer: (d) Menarche


Question 22.
The release of eggs from the ovary of human female is called:
(a) Plantation
(b) Gestation
(c) Ovulation
(d) Parturition

Answer

Answer: (c) Ovulation


Question 23.
Ovulation regulate by which hormone:
(a) TSH
(b) ACTH
(c) ADH
(d) FSH and LH

Answer

Answer: (c) ADH


Question 24.
The machanism of formation of mature female gamete is:
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Acrosome
(c) Semen
(d) Oogenesis

Answer

Answer: (d) Oogenesis


Question 25.
Fertilization takes place in human :
(a) In uterus
(b) In vagina
(c) In ovary
(d) In fallopian tubes

Answer

Answer: (d) In fallopian tubes


 

Share:

In Article

Definition List

Unordered List

Support