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Friday 29 January 2021
CBSE Class 12 French - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10
CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 French – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10
Every
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 16 - Environmental Issues
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Environmental Issues
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Environmental Issues
Question 1.
Acid Rain comes under which type of pollution?
(a) Water pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) Soil pollution
(d) Sound Pollution
Answer
Answer: (c) Soil pollution
Question 2.
Bhopal gas tragedy of 1884 took place because methyl isocyanate reacted with:
(a) DDT
(b) Ammonia
(c) CO2
(d) Water
Answer
Answer: (c) CO2
Question 3.
Which chemical substance affects the Ozone Layer?
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon
(b) Chlorine
(c) Hexafluorocarbon
(d) Molecular Carbon
Answer
Answer: (a) Chlorofluorocarbon
Question 4.
Chlorofluoro carbon are responsible for:
(a) Acid rain
(b) Ozone layer depletion
(c) Global warming
(d) Thermal inversion
Answer
Answer: (d) Thermal inversion
Question 5.
Fluoride pollution mainly affect:
(a) Teeth
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Heart
Answer
Answer: (a) Teeth
Question 6.
Environment (Protection) Act came into force in?
(a) 1986
(b) 1989
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Answer
Answer: (c) 1992
Question 7.
In Ozone Degradation which element acts as catalyst?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Flurine
(c) Oxygen
(d) Potassium
Answer
Answer: (a) Chlorine
Question 8.
Nutrient enrichment of water bodies causes:
(a) Stratification
(b) Eutrophication
(c) Succession
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Eutrophication
Question 9.
Ozone Layer is found in :
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Hemisphere
Answer
Answer: (a) Stratosphere
Question 10.
Pollutant which causes acid rain is:
(a) SO2
(b) CO2
(c) CO
(d) Hydrocarbon
Answer
Answer: (a) SO2
Question 11.
Increased skin cancer and high mutation rate are due to:
(a) Acid Rain
(b) Ozone Depletion
(c) CO2 Pollution
(d) CO Pollution
Answer
Answer: (b) Ozone Depletion
Question 12.
Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Methane
(b) CO2
(c) Chlorofluoro carbon
(d) Hydrogen
Answer
Answer: (d) Hydrogen
Question 13.
Minimata disease is caused by:
(a) ByChromium
(b) By Cadmium
(c) By Methyl mercury
(d) By Radioactive elements
Answer
Answer: (c) By Methyl mercury
Question 14.
Permissible noise levels in a residential area at night time is:
(a) 35 dB
(b) 40 dB
(c) 45 dB
(d) 50 dB
Answer
Answer: (c) 45 dB
Question 15.
A mutagenic pollutant is:
(a) Organophosphate
(b) Resines
(c) Hydrocarbons
(d) Nitrogen oxides
Answer
Answer: (c) Hydrocarbons
Question 16.
Natural air pollutant are:
(a) Pollen Grains
(b) Gases of Volcanic Eruption
(c) Aerosol
(d) Fluorides
Answer
Answer: (b) Gases of Volcanic Eruption
Question 17.
Rain is called acid rain, its pH is below:
(a) 7
(b) 6.5
(c) 6
(d) 5.6
Answer
Answer: (d) 5.6
Question 18.
Bluebaby syndrome results from:
(a) Excess of TDS
(b) Excess of DO
(c) Excess of chloride
(d) Methaemoglobin
Answer
Answer: (d) Methaemoglobin
Question 19.
Common indicator organism of water pollution is:
(a) Lemna pancicostata
(b) Eichhomia crassipes
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
Answer
Answer: (c) Escherichia coli
Question 20.
Pollution of SO2 destroys:
(a) Lichen
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) Fish
Answer
Answer: (a) Lichen
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 15 - Biodiversity and Conservation
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Biodiversity and Conservation
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Biodiversity and Conservation
Question 1.
Which type of living organisms given below are listed in Red Data Book”?
(a) Rare species
(b) Rare and endangered species
(c) Endangered species
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Rare and endangered species
Question 2.
Reserve biosphere of Sundarban is situated in which of the following states :
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal
Answer
Answer: (d) West Bengal
Question 3.
Bandipurin Karnataka is the site of project:
(a) Elephant
(b) Hangul
(c) Tiger
(d) Peacock
Answer
Answer: (c) Tiger
Question 4.
Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year:
(a) 1996
(b) 1992
(c) 2002
(d) 2000
Answer
Answer: (c) 2002
Question 5.
Red Data Book is produced by:
(a) IUCN
(b) WWF
(c) IBWL
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) IUCN
Question 6.
Lion-tailed Macaque is found in:
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Caucasus
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Western Himalaya
Answer
Answer: (a) Western Ghats
Question 7.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) Birds
(b) Rhinoceros
(c) Tigers
(d) Crocodiles
Answer
Answer: (c) Tigers
Question 8.
Project tiger in India was started in the year:
(a) 1973
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer
Answer: (a) 1973
Question 9.
Lions m India are now found in :
(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Forests of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Forests of Western Ghats
(d) Fir Forests
Answer
Answer: (d) Fir Forests
Question 10.
Dudhwa National Part is located in:
(a) In Himachal Pradesh
(b) In Uttar Pradesh
(c) In Madhya Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer
Answer: (b) In Uttar Pradesh
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 14 - Ecosystem
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Ecosystem
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Ecosystem
Question 1.
Plant roots soil water is:
(a) Cellular water
(b) Surface water
(c) Humidity water
(d) Gravitational water
Answer
Answer: (d) Gravitational water
Question 2.
Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:
(a) Uticularia
(b) Prapa
(c) Nymphea
(d) Vallisnaria
Answer
Answer: (d) Vallisnaria
Question 3.
Xerophyte Contains:
(a) Deep roots
(b) Sunken stomata
(c) Thick cuticle
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (d) All of these
Question 4.
Soil particle determine the character of:
(a) Organisation
(b) Biomass
(c) Area capacity
(d) Soil plants
Answer
Answer: (a) Organisation
Question 5.
Soil developed from sedimented rock:
(a) Force Science
(b) Edaphology
(c) Pedogenesis
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Pedogenesis
Question 6.
Who introduced term Ecosystem?
(a) Leaneous
(b) Reiter
(c) Odum
(d) Aristle
Answer
Answer: (b) Reiter
Question 7.
Small extremite animals of tropicalregion:
(a) Allen’s law
(b) Bergmen’s law
(c) Dollo’s law
(d) Cope’s law
Answer
Answer: (d) Cope’s law
Question 8.
Identity the Hetero Organism:
(a) Pistia
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Vallisnaria
(d) Casurina
Answer
Answer: (c) Vallisnaria
Question 9.
Hibernation of some animals:
(a) Regular
(b) Periodic
(c) Suddenly
(d) Temporary
Answer
Answer: (a) Regular
Question 10.
That animal who can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight is:
(a) Necturus
(b) Camel
(c) Wall Lizzard
(d) Kyton
Answer
Answer: (b) Camel
Question 11.
The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivoure to carnivorce level is :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Answer
Answer: (b) 10%
Question 12.
Exchange of water in submerged plant:
(a) Stomata
(b) Normal surface
(c) Hydathode
(d) Lenticel
Answer
Answer: (b) Normal surface
Question 13.
Physical and chemical properties of soil studied by :
(a) Climatic factor
(b) Biotic factor
(c) Soil factor
(d) Topographic factor
Answer
Answer: (b) Biotic factor
Question 14.
Root hair absent in:
(a) Hydrophyte
(b) Halophyte
(c) Mesophyte
(d) Heliophyte
Answer
Answer: (a) Hydrophyte
Question 15.
A water co-efficient Mesophyte is:
(a) Cappais
(b) Agave
(c) Acacia
(d) Hemeris
Answer
Answer: (b) Agave
Question 16.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) For Birds
(b) For Tendua
(c) For Tiger
(d) For Crocodile
Answer
Answer: (b) For Tendua
Question 17.
During food chain the maximum energy is stored in :
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Herbivoures
(d) Camivourse
Answer
Answer: (a) Producers
Question 18.
Ecological pyramids were first devised by:
(a) Charles Eltom
(b) R. Hesse
(c) R.A. Lindemann
(d) Justus von Liebig
Answer
Answer: (a) Charles Eltom
Question 19.
Gravitated carried soil is:
(a) Alluvial
(b) Muddy
(c) Glacier
(d) Compound
Answer
Answer: (d) Compound
Question 20.
Which of the following ecosystem has highest gross primary productivity:
(a) Grassland
(b) Coral reefs
(c) Mangrooves
(d) Rainforests
Answer
Answer: (b) Coral reefs
Question 21.
Which types of the following pyramid are never inverted?
(a) Pyramid of energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Pyramid of dry biomass
Answer
Answer: (a) Pyramid of energy
Question 22.
Best soil for plant growth is:
(a) Grit
(b) Sandy
(c) Soily
(d) Clay
Answer
Answer: (d) Clay
Question 23.
Water co-deficient contains:
(a) Large thin walled cells
(b) Large-vacuoles
(c) Membrane
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Membrane
Question 24.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramid?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
Answer
Answer: (a) Dry weight
Question 25.
Biosphere means:
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Lithosphere and ionosphered
(c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
(d) Hydrosphere lithosphere and ionsophere
Answer
Answer: (c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
Question 26.
In the phosphorus cycle, weathring makes phosophate available first to:
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Producers
Question 27.
Best type of pyramid which is always true is:
(a) Pyramid or energy
(b) Pyramid of Biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer
Answer: (a) Pyramid or energy
Question 28.
The largest ecosystem is :
(a) Forest ecosystem
(b) Marine ecosystem
(c) Pond ecosystem
(d) Grassland ecosystem
Answer
Answer: (b) Marine ecosystem
Question 29.
Ecology deals with:
(a) The arth and plants
(b) The relationship between organisms and their environment
(c) Economical growth of poor people
(d) The life under sea
Answer
Answer: (b) The relationship between organisms and their environment
Question 30.
More than 70 of world freshwater is contain in:
(a) Antarctica
(b) Glaciers and mountains
(c) Greenland
(d) Polar ice
Answer
Answer: (c) Greenland
Question 31.
Decomposers are:
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Autohetrotrophs
(c) Organotrophs
(d) Heterotrophs
Answer
Answer: (d) Heterotrophs
Question 32.
Which one of the following pair is mismatched?
(a) Prairies-Epiphytes
(b) Tundra-Permafrost
(c) Savannaha-Acacia trees
(d) Coniferous forests-Evergreen trees)
Answer
Answer: (a) Prairies-Epiphytes
Question 33.
Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(a) Mountain
(b) Desert
(c) Forest
(d) Ocean
Answer
Answer: (b) Desert
Question 34.
What is the main cause of extinction of some species in tropical forests?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion
Answer
Answer: (a) Deforestation
Question 35.
Primary succession occurs in :
(a) Primary succession occurs
(b) Previously unoccupied area
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Previously unoccupied area
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 13 - Organisms and Populations
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Organisms and Populations
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Organisms and Populations
Question 1.
Water holding capacity is maximum in:
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) Gravel
Answer
Answer: (a) Clay
Question 2.
Submerged hydrophytes havedisseced leaves for:
(a) Decreasing surface area
(b) Increasing surface area
(c) Reducing effect pf water currents
(d) Increasing number of stomata
Answer
Answer: (c) Reducing effect pf water currents
Question 3.
Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called :
(a) Acclimatisation
(b) Hibernation
(c) Aestivation
(d) Adapatation
Answer
Answer: (b) Hibernation
Question 4.
Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example:
(a) Colour change in Chameleon
(b) Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
(c) Poison fangas of snakes
(d) Melaninin in moths
Answer
Answer: (c) Poison fangas of snakes
Question 5.
Praying mantis is a good example of:
(a) Camouflage
(b) Mullarian mimicry
(c) Warning colouration
(d) Social insect
Answer
Answer: (a) Camouflage
Question 6.
Niche overlap is:
(a) Mutualism between two species
(b) Active cooperation between two species
(c) Tjvo different parasites on same food
(d) Sharing resources between two species
Answer
Answer: (d) Sharing resources between two species
Question 7.
Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its:
(a) Topography
(b) Trophic level
(c) Boundary
(d) Ecological niche
Answer
Answer: (d) Ecological niche
Question 8.
Science linking heredity with environment is:
(a) Ecology
(b) Ecophysiology
(c) Genecology
(d) Genetics
Answer
Answer: (c) Genecology
Question 9.
Ozone protects biosphere from high energetic:
(a) Infra-red rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) gamma rays
Answer
Answer: (b) Ultraviolet rays
Question 10.
The maximum growth rate occurs in :
(a) Lag phase
(b) Exponential, phase
(c) Stationary phase
(d) Senescent phase
Answer
Answer: (b) Exponential, phase
Question 11.
Plants growing in saline soil with high salt concentration are:
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Heliophytes
(d) Hydrophytes
Answer
Answer: (b) Halophytes
Question 12.
Avicennia, Rhizophora andAtriplex are:
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Mesophytes
Answer
Answer: (b) Halophytes
Question 13.
Maximum amounts of humus occurs on:
(a) In lower most layer
(b) In upper layer
(c) In Middle layer
(d) Same everywhere
Answer
Answer: (b) In upper layer
Question 14.
In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface veiw most?
(a) Shrub land
(b) Forest
(c) Desert
(d) Grassland
Answer
Answer: (c) Desert
Question 15.
Mycorrhiza is an example to:
(a) Decomposers
(b) Endoparasitism
(c) Symbiotic relationship
(d) Ectoparasitism
Answer
Answer: (c) Symbiotic relationship
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 12 - Biotechnology and its Applications
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Biotechnology and its Applications
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Biotechnology and its Applications
Question 1.
By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:
(a) Inhibition of a Innate gene
(b) An occured Biosynthetic passway develop
(c) A protein occured with genotype expressed his desired
(d) None of the above
Answer
Answer: (d) None of the above
Question 2.
Adjoining of exotic gene is crop is called :
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Bio architecture
(c) Tissue culture
(d) Immunisation
Answer
Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering
Question 3.
Transgenic Golden Rice Highly Nutrient value for:
(a) Lysine
(b) Methionine
(c) Glutanin
(d) Vitamin-A
Answer
Answer: (d) Vitamin-A
Question 4.
In a Transgenic crop gene for following:
(a) New protein synthesis
(b) Resistance from Antibiotics
(c) In the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (d) All of these
Question 5.
Transgenic Bacteria and m the making of following :
(a) Epinephrin
(b) Human Insullin
(c) Glutanin
(d) Thyroxin
Answer
Answer: (b) Human Insullin
Question 6.
Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from:
(a) One parent for one antigen
(b) Different parents for one antigen
(c) One parent for many antigens
(d) Many parents for many antigens
Answer
Answer: (b) Different parents for one antigen
Question 7.
B7 Toxsin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystal protein
(c) Extracellular Crystal protein
(d) Lipid
Answer
Answer: (b) Intracellular crystal protein
Question 8.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By cell culture
(d) ByPollen culture
Answer
Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion
Question 9.
Which one of the following is a step of PCR?
(a) Denaturation
(b) Annealing
(c) Extension
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Denaturation
Question 10.
Restriction Endonuclease used in RDT obtained from:
(a) Plasmid
(b) Bacterial ceils
(c) Bacterophages
(d) All Prokaryotic cells
Answer
Answer: (b) Bacterial ceils
Question 11.
The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:
(a) Bacillus thruingiensis
(b) E. Coii
(c) Agrobacterium hizogenes
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer
Answer: (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Question 12.
Which Vitamin has been transferred to golden rice?
(a) Vit-B12
(b) Vit-A
(c) Vit-D
(d) Vit-C
Answer
Answer: (b) Vit-A
Question 13.
From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared.
(a) Cymohopogen
(b) Tephrosia
(c) Crysanthemum
(d) Vitivera
Answer
Answer: (c) Crysanthemum
Question 14.
Biopiracy is related to the following:
(a) Traditional knowledge
(b) Biomolecules and Bioresources, Isolation of gene from Bioresources
(c) Bioresources
(d) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (d) All of the above
Question 15.
The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s:
(a) Udder
(b) Skin
(c) Tongue
(d) Earlobe
Answer
Answer: (c) Tongue
Question 16.
Recombinant DNA technology discovered by:
(a) Hargobind Khoorana
(b) James D. Watsan
(c) S. Kohen and H. Boer
(d) Sulton and Boveri
Answer
Answer: (c) S. Kohen and H. Boer
Question 17.
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trail:
(a) Insec resistance
(b) Hight lysine (essential amino acid) content
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin A content
Answer
Answer: (c) High protein content
Question 18.
The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDA is:
(a) ELISA
(b) Western Plot
(c) ESR
(d) PCR
Answer
Answer: (a) ELISA
Question 19.
Some bacterial occured B-7 Toxin’s crystal not kill the Bacteria because of:
(a) Bacteria is Antoxin
(b) Toxin is unripened
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Bacteria enclosed toxin a special sell
Answer
Answer: (c) Toxin is inactive
Question 20.
Natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas sp.
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer
Answer: (a) Bacillus subtilis
Question 21.
First Transjenic crop was :
(a) Cotton
(b) Alsi
(c) Pea
(d) Tobacco
Answer
Answer: (d) Tobacco
Question 22.
Bt toxin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystalline protein
(c) Extracellular crystalline protein
(d) Lipid
Answer
Answer: (a) Intracellular lipid
Question 23.
Desired properties plants and Animals are possible by Which reproduction.
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Chromosomal Engineering
(c) Ekabana technology
(d) Bonsai technology
Answer
Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering
Question 24.
First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering:
(a) Human insulin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Interferons
(d) Fertility factor
Answer
Answer: (b) Penicillin
Question 25.
Anticoagulant hirudin is found in:
(a) In Snake
(b) In Lizard
(c) In Leech
(d) In Scorpion
Answer
Answer: (c) In Leech
Question 26.
The species used as natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Agrobacterim tumefaciens
(b) Bacillus thruingiensis
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Drosophila
Answer
Answer: (d) Drosophila
Question 27.
Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel:
(a) Biofertilizers
(b) Biometallurgical techniques
(c) Biomineralization processes
(d) Bioinsecticidal plants
Answer
Answer: (a) Biofertilizers
Question 28.
Most widely used Bioweapon is:
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Biometallurgial techniques
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Bioinsecticidal plant
Answer
Answer: (d) Bioinsecticidal plant
Question 29.
A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is:
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) DNA finger printing
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
Answer: (b) DNA finger printing
Question 30.
Herbicide resistant gene in plants is:
(a) Ct
(b) Mt
(c) Bt
(d) Gst
Answer
Answer: (d) Gst
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 11 - Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Question 1.
Plasmid is a:
(a) Fungus
(b) Plasmid
(c) Part of Plasma membrane
(d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell
Answer
Answer: (d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell
Question 2.
DNA obtained for DNA finger printing:
(a) W.B.C.
(b) Hair root cells
(c) Body fluids
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) W.B.C.
Question 3.
Who discovered Restricted endonucleas enzymes?
(a) Smith and Nathane
(b) Baiger
(c) Waxman
(d) Fleming
Answer
Answer: (a) Smith and Nathane
Question 4.
Restriction endonuclease cuts:
(a) One stand of DNA at specific site
(b) Both strands of DNA
(c) Both strands of DNA at any site
(d) Single strand of RNA
Answer
Answer: (b) Both strands of DNA
Question 5.
Triticale, first man made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with:
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl millet
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley
Answer
Answer: (d) Barley
Question 6.
Restrictipn endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from :
(a) Plasmids
(b) AH prokaryotic cells
(c) Bacteriophages
(d) Bacterial cells
Answer
Answer: (d) Bacterial cells
Question 7.
Two microbes found tb be very useful in Genetic Engineering are:
(a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Vibrio cholarae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(d) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabdities elegans
Answer
Answer: (a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Question 8.
Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :
(a) High lysin content
(b) Pest resistance
(c) High protien content
(d) High vitamin A content
Answer
Answer: (d) High vitamin A content
Question 9.
Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic, engineering are:
(a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Virbio chloerae and tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp and pseudomonas sp.
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Question 10.
Transgenic plants are develop by:
(a) Introducing of foreign fenes
(b) Clone and genetically modified genes
(c) Genetic engineering
(d) Purified genes
Answer
Answer: (a) Introducing of foreign fenes
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10 - Microbes in Human Welfare
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Microbes in Human Welfare
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Microbes in Human Welfare
Question 1.
Usnic acid is an antibiotic obtained from :
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Lichens
(d) Algae
Answer
Answer: (c) Lichens
Question 2.
By anobacteria are useful biofertilizers in the; field of:
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane
Answer
Answer: (c) Rice
Question 3.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel:
(a) Bio-metallurigcal techniques
(b) Bio-mineralization process
(c) Bio-insecticidal plants
(d) Bio-fertilizers
Answer
Answer: (c) Bio-insecticidal plants
Question 4.
Term antibiotic was first used by :
(a) Flemming
(b) Pasteur
(c) Waksman
(d) Lister
Answer
Answer: (c) Waksman
Question 5.
Citric acid is produced by:
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Saccharomyces
Answer
Answer: (a) Rhizopus
Question 6.
Streptomycin is produced by:
(a) By Streptomyces Scoleus
(b) By Streptomyces fradiae
(c) By Streptomyces venezueleae
(d) By Streptomyces griseus
Answer
Answer: (d) By Streptomyces griseus
Question 7.
For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe is:
(a) Methanophilic bacteria
(b) Butyric acid bacteria
(c) Helicobactor pylon
(d) Streptococcus lactin
Answer
Answer: (b) Butyric acid bacteria
Question 8.
Antibiotics are:
(a) Medicines
(b) Toxin
(c) Plants
(d) Syrups
Answer
Answer: (a) Medicines
Question 9.
A free living anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Clostridium
Answer
Answer: (d) Clostridium
Question 10.
Azoila has symbiotic relationship with:
(a) Chlotfila
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Tolypothrix
Answer
Answer: (b) Anabaena
Question 11.
In nostoc, enzyme nitrogenase occurs in :
(a) Vegetative cells
(b) Heterocysts
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only in hormogones
Answer
Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Question 12.
A free-living aerobic and non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Anabaena
(b) Clostridium
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Rhizobium
Answer
Answer: (c) Azotobactor
Question 13.
Streptococcus is used in the preparation of:
(a) Wine
(b) Idli
(c) Paneer
(d) Bread
Answer
Answer: (c) Paneer
Question 14.
Nif gene occurs in:
(a) Peiiicillium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Streptococcus
Answer
Answer: (b) Rhizobium
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 9 - Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Question 1.
India’s w heat yield revolution in the 1986s was possible primarily due to:
(a) Mutations resulting in the plant height reduction
(b) Quantitative trait mutations
(c) Hybrid seeds
(d) Increased chlorophyll content
Answer
Answer: (c) Hybrid seeds
Question 2.
Choose the cat fish from the following:
(a) Katla Katla
(b) Wallage attu
(c) Labeo rohita
(d) Cirrhinus mrigaja
Answer
Answer: (b) Wallage attu
Question 3.
Zoological name of Indian buffalo is:
(a) Bubalus bubalus
(b) Bos indicus
(c) Bos taurus
(d) Gallusgallus
Answer
Answer: (a) Bubalus bubalus
Question 4.
Most cultivated plants are:
(a) Autopolyploid
(b) Allopolyploid
(c) Aneuploids
(d) Haploids
Answer
Answer: (b) Allopolyploid
Question 5.
Both in callus and suspension culture commonly used auxin is:
(a) NAA
(b) IEA
(c) 2-4D
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer
Answer: (c) 2-4D
Question 6.
One of the following is a disease of poultry:
(a) Anthrax
(b) Pebrine disease
(c) Ranikhet disease
(d) Foot and mouth disease
Answer
Answer: (c) Ranikhet disease
Question 7.
Triticale first main-made corral crop has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl mille
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley
Answer
Answer: (a) Rye
Question 8.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By Cell culture
(d) By Totipotency
Answer
Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion
Question 9.
Norman Borlaugh known as “Father of Green Revolution” has developed new cultivating variety of:
(a) Paddy
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane
Answer
Answer: (c) Wheat
Question 10.
The best milk breed in the world is:
(a) Chittgong
(b) Deoni
(c) Holstein-Friesian
(d) Sindhi
Answer
Answer: (c) Holstein-Friesian
Question 11.
Most nutritious among the following is:
(a) What
(b) Maize
(c) Pearley
(d) Rice
Answer
Answer: (c) Pearley
Question 12.
The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called :
(a) Organ culture
(b) Micro-propagation
(c) Macro-propagation
(d) Plantlet culture
Answer
Answer: (b) Micro-propagation
Question 13.
The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is :
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Goat-sheep cross
(d) Mashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
Answer
Answer: (b) Goat
Question 14.
Hybrid vagour is induced by:
(a) By Clonal selection
(b) By Crossing of plant
(c) By crossing of two plants
(d) By Species differentiation
Answer
Answer: (c) By crossing of two plants
Question 15.
There crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are :
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) Wheat rice and barley
(c) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(d) Rice, maize and sorghum
Answer
Answer: (a) Wheat, rice and maize
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 8 - Human Health and Disease
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – Human Health and Disease
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – Human Health and Disease
Question 1.
Following is Hallucinator
(a) LSD
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocein
(d) Morphin
Answer
Answer: (a) LSD
Question 2.
By the plant of which family Heroin is obtained?
(a) Leguminaceae
(b) Papa Veraceae
(c) Liliaece
(d) Solanaceae
Answer
Answer: (b) Papa Veraceae
Question 3.
Opiates are obtained from
(a) Thea sinesis
(b) Coffea Arabica
(c) Oryzasativa
(d) Papaver Seminiferum
Answer
Answer: (d) Papaver Seminiferum
Question 4.
Which organ of body is most affected by excessive intake of alcohol?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Spleen
Answer
Answer: (b) Liver
Question 5.
PCR is test for:
(a) HIV
(b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera
Answer
Answer: (a) HIV
Question 6.
Common cold is caused by:
(a) Retro virus
(b) Phage virus
(c) Rhino virus
(d) Sendai virus
Answer
Answer: (c) Rhino virus
Question 7.
Following which is STD:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis
Answer
Answer: (d) Syphilis
Question 8.
Pain-killer drugs:
(a) Makes Tissue
(b) Relieve from pain
(c) Relieve from tired
(d) Pain creater
Answer
Answer: (c) Relieve from tired
Question 9.
AIDS occur by which cause?
(a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
(b) Reduction of Killer T-cells
(c) Auto immune
(d) Less production of interferon
Answer
Answer: (a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
Question 10.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filaria in human being. It is of which group:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth
Answer
Answer: (d) Helminth
Question 11.
Which of the following is the cancer of blood?
(a) Sarcoma
(b) Lymphoms
(c) Leukemia
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Leukemia
Question 12.
Gonorrhoea is caused by:
(a) By Treponema pallidium
(b) By Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) By Mycobacterium taprae
(d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer
Answer: (d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Question 13.
Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) By Sand fly
(b) By Tsetse fly
(c) By House fly
(d) By Mosquitoes
Answer
Answer: (a) By Sand fly
Question 14.
Antigen-binding site in an antibody, is found between:
(a) Two light chains
(b) Two heavy chains
(c) One heavy and one light chain
(d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain
Answer
Answer: (d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain
Question 15.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is:
(a) TB
(b) AIDS
(c) Tetanus
(d) Food Poisoning
Answer
Answer: (c) Tetanus
Question 16.
Immune deficiency symdrome is caused by:
(a) Defected liver
(b) Defected thymus
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Loss of Immune system
Answer
Answer: (c) AIDS Virus
Question 17.
Heroin is the form of :
(a) Aesthetic
(b) Hallucination
(c) Irritation
(d) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (b) Hallucination
Question 18.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to:
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Live cirrhosis
(c) State of hellucination
(d) Suppresion of brain function
Answer
Answer: (b) Live cirrhosis
Question 19.
Widal test is done to confirm:
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer
Answer
Answer: (b) Typhoid
Question 20.
World AIDS day is:
(a) 1 May
(b) 20 December
(c) 1 June
(d) 1 December
Answer
Answer: (d) 1 December
Question 21.
Which part of poppy plant yields opium:
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dired seeds
Answer
Answer: (a) Latex from unripe capsules
Question 22.
Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:
(a) Pain Killer
(b) Tranquillizer
(c) Hallucination
(d) Stimulant
Answer
Answer: (d) Stimulant
Question 23.
Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Monocytes
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes
Answer
Answer: (d) Lymphocytes
Question 24.
Opium is:
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin
Answer
Answer: (c) Heroin
Question 25.
AIDS caused by:
(a) By fungus
(b) By Virus
(c) By Bacteria
(d) By Helminthes
Answer
Answer: (b) By Virus
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 7 - Evolution
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – Evolution
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – Evolution
Question 1.
Book ‘Philosophique Zoologique’ was written by:
(a) Lamarck
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Hugo-devries
Answer
Answer: (a) Lamarck
Question 2.
Missing link in evolution is:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Limulus
(c) Peripatus
(d) Archaeopterys
Answer
Answer: (d) Archaeopterys
Question 3.
Theory of Pangenesis was given by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) DeVries
Answer
Answer: (a) Darwin
Question 4.
Which one of the following phenomenon supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
(b) Production of‘Dolly the sheep’ by cloning
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(d) Development of organs from ‘Stem cells’ for organ transplantation
Answer
Answer: (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
Question 5.
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
(a) Ontogeny
(b) Phytogeny
(c) Ancestry
(d) Palaentolgy
Answer
Answer: (b) Phytogeny
Question 6.
The biogenetic law of Haeckel is:
(a) Ominis vivum-e-eellula
(b) Omminis cellula-e-cellula
(c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny
(d) Phytogeny repeats ontogeny
Answer
Answer: (c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny
Question 7.
Hardy-Weinberg principle explains :
(a) Chromosomal
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Genetic equilibrium
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Genetic equilibrium
Question 8.
As per Neo-Darwinism, which is mainly responsible for evolution?
(a) Mutation
(b) Natural drift
(c) Both of these
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Natural drift
Question 9.
Wings of Butterfly and birds are:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
Answer: (b) Analogous organs
Question 10.
Dispersal of population depends on:
(a) On immigration
(b) On Emigration
(c) On Migration
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (d) All of these
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 6 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Question 1.
The ratio constant for a species is :
(a) T+C/G + A
(b) A+C/T + G
(c) G + G/A + T
(d) A + C/C + T
Answer
Answer: (b) A+C/T + G
Question 2.
DNA repairing is done by:
(a) By DNA polymerase I
(b) By DNA Polymerase II
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) By Ligase
Answer
Answer: (b) By DNA Polymerase II
Question 3.
Represser Lac-Operon protein attached to:
(a) Operator
(b) Inducer
(c) Regulator
(d) β-Glacto sidase
Answer
Answer: (b) Inducer
Question 4.
A ribotide is made up of:
(a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
(b) Deoxribose + Uracil + Phosphate
(c) Thymine + Ribose + Phosphate
(d) Deoxyribpse + Phosphate + Adenine
Answer
Answer: (a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
Question 5.
DNA fragments are joined in a correct sequence by :
(a) DNA ligase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase
Answer
Answer: (b) RNA polymerase
Question 6.
the enzyme involved in transcription is:
(a) DNA Polymerase I
(b) DNA Polymerase II
(c) RNA Polymerase
(d) DNA Polymerase
Answer
Answer: (d) DNA Polymerase
Question 7.
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that:
(a) One strand turns clockwise
(b) One strand turns anticlockwise
(c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position
(d) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
Answer
Answer: (c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position
Question 8.
Following is important in Ïranscription:
(a) DNA Methylase
(b) CAAT Box
(c) Promotar
(d) DNA Polymerase
Answer
Answer: (a) DNA Methylase
Question 9.
One turn of the helix in p-from DNA is approximately:
(a) 20 Å
(b) 2 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 34 nm
Answer
Answer: (d) 34 nm
Question 10.
Which one is mainly transcribed:
(a) Only RNA sequence
(b) Middle repetitive DNA sequence
(c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence
(d) Single copy of DNA sequence
Answer
Answer: (c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence
Question 11.
Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of?
(a) c-DNA
(b) r-RNA
(c) f-RNA
(d) m-RNA
Answer
Answer: (b) r-RNA
Question 12.
DNA multiplication is also called:
(a) Replication
(b) Transduction
(c) Translation
(d) Transcription
Answer
Answer: (b) Transduction
Question 13.
One of these is not prepared directly from DNA
(a) m-RNA
(b) f-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) Protein
Answer
Answer: (d) Protein
Question 14.
During Protein synthesis, atone point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which any one of the three could bring about this halt:
(a) UUC, UUA, UAC
(b) UAG, UGA, UAA
(c) UUE, UCA, UCG
(d) UUU, UCC, UAU
Answer
Answer: (b) UAG, UGA, UAA
Question 15.
During splicing axon attached and inducer enzyme for reaction:
(a) RNA Ligase
(b) RNA Catalase
(c) RNA permease
(d) RNA poloymerase
Answer
Answer: (b) RNA Catalase
Question 16.
Which is not component of lac operon:
(a) Primer gene
(b) Promoter gene
(c) constructive gene
(d) Regulator gene
Answer
Answer: (c) constructive gene
Question 17.
Okazaki fregments is:
(a) RNA primer
(b) small segments of DNA on leading stand
(c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand
Question 18.
Transposons occur in:
(a) In Eukaryotes
(b) In Prokaryotes
(c) In both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (c) In both (a) and (b)
Question 19.
Anticodon found in:
(a) On DNA
(b) On t-RNA
(c) On r-RNA
(d) On m-RNA
Answer
Answer: (b) On t-RNA
Question 20.
In DNA helix:
(a) Quadrate structure
(b) Polarity
(c) Antiparallel Polarity
(d) Disuiphide bond
Answer
Answer: (c) Antiparallel Polarity
Question 21.
Coiling of DNA duplex is:
(a) Left-handed
(b) Right-handed
(c) Parallel
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Parallel
Question 22.
Inprokaryotic translation, GTP molecule required in at:
(a) Formation of formyl-met-f-RNA
(b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA
(c) Joining of 30S m-RNA on Formyl-met-f-RNA
(d) Joining of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
Answer
Answer: (b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA
Question 23.
During DNA synthesis formed segment is:
(a) Polymerase fragment
(b) RNA fragment
(c) Okazaki fragment
(d) RNA Primer
Answer
Answer: (c) Okazaki fragment
Question 24.
DNA double helix model was given by:
(a) Knoll and Ruska
(b) Khorana
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Priestley
Answer
Answer: (c) Watson and Crick
Question 25.
In a give DNA segment ATC ACC AGG ACC CCA ACA, the first base gets mutated. The effect of this on coding by the DNA segment will result in :
(a) One amino acid less in protein
(b) No change in the sequence
(c) Complete change in the type and sequence of amino acid
(d) Change in first amino acid only
Answer
Answer: (b) No change in the sequence
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 5 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Question 1.
Two genes very close on a chromosome will show:
(a) No crossing over
(b) High crossing over
(c) Hardly an crossing over
(d) Only double crossing overy
Answer
Answer: (a) No crossing over
Question 2.
First geneticist/father of genetics was:
(a) de Vries
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Morgan
Answer
Answer: (b) Mendel
Question 3.
Cause of chromosomal mutation:
(a) Euploidy
(b) Polyploidy
(c) Physical effect
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (d) All of these
Question 4.
An lndividual with into identical alleles is:
(a) Hybrid
(b) Dominant
(c) Homozygous
(d) Heterozygous
Answer
Answer: (c) Homozygous
Question 5.
Mendal’s law can be applicable only when:
(a) Characters are linked
(b) Parents are pore breed
(c) F1 generation in monohybrid cross show 2 type of individuals
(d) Onepair of contiasting characters depends on another pair
Answer
Answer: (a) Characters are linked
Question 6.
A true hybrid condition is:
(a) tt Rr
(b) Tt rr
(c) tt rr
(d) Tt Rr
Answer
Answer: (c) tt rr
Question 7.
When F1 plants heterozygous for tallness are selfed F2, generation has both tall and dwarf plants. This proves the principle of:
(a) Dominance
(b) Blended inheritance
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of independent assortment
Answer
Answer: (c) Law of segregation
Question 8.
The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called :
(a) Co-dominant
(b) Supplementary
(c) Complementary
(d) Recessive
Answer
Answer: (d) Recessive
Question 9.
Most of the mutations are:
(a) Recessive
(b) Harmful
(c) Germinal
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Recessive
Question 10.
Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is :
(a) Recon
(b) Cistron
(c) Muton
(d) Exon
Answer
Answer: (c) Muton
Question 11.
Genes located on V-chroinosome are:
(a) Mutant genes
(b) Autosomal genes
(c) Holandric genes
(d) Sex-linked genes
Answer
Answer: (d) Sex-linked genes
Question 12.
A strong mutagen is:
(a) Cold
(b) Heat
(c) Water
(d) X-rays
Answer
Answer: (d) X-rays
Question 13.
A point mutation is:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickel-cell anaemia
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Nightblindness
Answer
Answer: (b) Sickel-cell anaemia
Question 14.
An organism with two unlike genes of a trait is called :
(a) Homozygous
(b) Hetrozygous
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Hetrozygous
Question 15.
Mendel’s formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of:
(a) Test cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Monohybrid cross
(d) Dihybrid cross
Answer
Answer: (c) Monohybrid cross
Question 16.
Mendel’s second law is of the law of:
(a) Segregation
(b) Dominance
(c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Independent assortment
Answer
Answer: (d) Independent assortment
Question 17.
Name the scientist who discovered the law of Heredity :
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Newton
(c) Piinnett
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Gregor Mendel
Question 18.
tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring:
(a) 75% Ineffective
(b) 50% Uneffective
(c) 25% Uneffective
(d) All Effective
Answer
Answer: (b) 50% Uneffective
Question 19.
Mendel’s laws were discovered by:
(a) Correns
(b) Shermak
(c) de meris
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (d) All of these
Question 20.
Sucess of mendal is
(a) Selection of Peaplant
(b) Studied of free characters
(c) More Characters selection
(d) Pea is Bisexual
Answer
Answer: (a) Selection of Peaplant
Question 21.
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division Cycle result in the gain or loss of a cromosome (s) is called :
(a) Female heterogamety
(b) Male heterogamety
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Female heterogamety
Question 22.
Loss of Melanin pigment cause for:
(a) Colourblindness
(b) Depigmentation
(c) Phenyl Ketoneuria
(d) Alkaptoneuria
Answer
Answer: (b) Depigmentation
Question 23.
Gunetical identification of male human is:
(a) By Nucleus
(b) By cells
(c) By Autosome
(d) By Sex-chromosome
Answer
Answer: (d) By Sex-chromosome
Question 24.
Mendel worked on :
(a) Edible pea
(b) Wild pea
(c) Garden Pea
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Edible pea
Question 25.
Exception of Mendel’s law is:
(a) Dominance
(b) Purity of gametes
(c) Linkage
(d) Independent assortment
Answer
Answer: (c) Linkage
Question 26.
Rh+ individual gene may be:
(a) rr
(b) TT
(c) Rr
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer
Answer: (c) Rr
Question 27.
Down’s syndrome is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) can be both
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Chromosomal disorder
Question 28.
Haemophilia is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) Can be (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Mendelian disorder
Question 29.
Mendal was born in:
(a) 17th century
(b) 18th century
(c) 19th century
(d) 8th century
Answer
Answer: (a) 17th century
Question 30.
A gamete contains which of the following :
(a) Both alleles of a gene
(b) Only one allele of a gene
(c) Al allele of a gene
(d) No allele
Answer
Answer: (b) Only one allele of a gene
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 4 - Reproductive Health
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Reproductive Health
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Reproductive Health
Question 1.
Central drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named?
(a) Mala-D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms
Answer
Answer: (c) Saheli
Question 2.
Which of these is cause by a retrovirus
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis
Answer
Answer: (b) AIDS
Question 3.
Fssay on Population was published by :
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Malthus
(d) Hugo de vries
Answer
Answer: (c) Malthus
Question 4.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract
Answer
Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
Question 5.
The birth control device not used by women is?
(a) Diaphrame
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper-T
Answer
Answer: (c) Nirodh
Question 6.
Test-tube baby is a technique where :
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube)
(d) All the above
Answer
Answer: (b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
Question 7.
Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:
(a) Population density
(b) Population crash
(c) Population explosion
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (b) Population crash
Question 8.
Amniocentesis is a process to:
(a) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(b) Know about diseases of brain
(c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
Question 9.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?
(a) Coitus intrruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea
Answer
Answer: (b) Periodic abstinence
Question 10.
A method of both control is:
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-T
(d) IUDs
Answer
Answer: (d) IUDs
Question 11.
The pre-natal technique to determine the gem. tic disorders in a foetus in called :
(a) Laprosocopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts
Answer
Answer: (b) Amniocentesis
Question 12.
Surgical removed of testis of male of control the human population is:
(a) Castration
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Laparoscopy
(d) Vasectomy
Answer
Answer: (a) Castration
Question 13.
Which is related to makes?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (c) Vasectomy
Question 14.
Drug Ru-486 is used as :
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abortive agent
(c) Amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen
Answer
Answer: (b) Abortive agent
Question 15.
‘Saheli’ a female antifertility pill, is used:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Monthly
Answer
Answer: (a) Daily
Question 16.
In India, first consus was conducted in:
(a) 1851
(b) 1891
(c) 1921
(d) 1951
Answer
Answer: (b) 1891
Question 17.
The most effective method for birth control is:
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization
Answer
Answer: (d) Sterilization
Question 18.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Ovulation
(c) Formation of embryo on the wall of Uterus
(d) Interrupt reproductive duct
Answer
Answer: (b) Ovulation
Question 19.
Progesteron in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above
Answer
Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation
Question 20.
Lactational Amenorrhoea is related to :
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of menstruation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) ASTD name
Answer
Answer: (a) Temporary method of contraception
CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 3 - Human Reproduction
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Human Reproduction
Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.
These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.
CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Human Reproduction
Question 1.
The cavity of blastula Is:
(a) Blastocoel
(b) Coelome
(c) Archentron
(d) Homocoel
Answer
Answer: (b) Coelome
Question 2.
The tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Mammary duct
(d) Hymen
Answer
Answer: (a) Clitoris
Question 3.
An accessery genital gland of man is:
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Seminal gland
(c) Cowper’s gland
(d) All of these
Answer
Answer: (d) All of these
Question 4.
Sertolicells present in:
(a) In liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Ovary
(d) in Pancreatic gland
Answer
Answer: (b) In Testis
Question 5.
Ovaries produce the female gamete called :
(a) Sperm
(b) Oviducts
(c) Ovum
(d) Prostate
Answer
Answer: (c) Ovum
Question 6.
The last part of the oviduct is called :
(a) Isthumus
(b) Ampulla
(c) Fimbriae
(d) Infundibulum
Answer
Answer: (a) Isthumus
Question 7.
The finger-like projections in the infundibulum are called:
(a) Fimbriae
(b) Ampulla
(c) Isthmus
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Fimbriae
Question 8.
The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Isthmus
(d) Hymen
Answer
Answer: (d) Hymen
Question 9.
Milk is sucked out from the:
(a) Mammary lobes
(b) Mammary glands
(c) Mammary ducts
(d) Lactiferous duct
Answer
Answer: (d) Lactiferous duct
Question 10.
Ovaries are found in the:
(a) In male reproductive system
(b) In Female reproductive system
(c) Can be both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (b) In Female reproductive system
Question 11.
The male reproductive system in located in the :
(a) In Pelvis region
(b) In Thoracic region
(c) In Back region
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) In Pelvis region
Question 12.
The uterus is single and it is also called :
(a) Fimbrae
(b) Isthmue
(c) Ampulla
(d) Womb
Answer
Answer: (d) Womb
Question 13.
The cells which synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called endrogens are:
(a) Germ cells
(b) Ledig cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Germ cells
Question 14.
Graafian follice occur:
(a) In humanithyroid
(b) In human female’s ovary
(c) In frog’s ovary
(d) In Rabbits testis
Answer
Answer: (c) In frog’s ovary
Question 15.
The grandular tissue of each breast of each breast in divided into 15-20:
(a) Mammary ducts
(b) Mammary glands
(c) mammary lobes
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (c) mammary lobes
Question 16.
Leydigicell found in.
(a) In liver
(b) In testis
(c) In kidney
(d) In intestine
Answer
Answer: (b) In testis
Question 17.
The nature male germ cells produce sperms by :
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Spermatids
(c) Spermination
(d) None of these
Answer
Answer: (a) Spermatogenesis
Question 18.
In mammals male hormones are produced in:
(a) In Liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Kidney
(d) In Lungs
Answer
Answer: (b) In Testis
Question 19.
Gestation period in human female:
(a) 30 Days
(b) 90 Days
(c) 9 Months
(d) 7 Months
Answer
Answer: (c) 9 Months
Question 20.
Androgens stimulate the process of?
(a) Body
(b) Head
(c) Tail
(d) Spermatogenesis
Answer
Answer: (d) Spermatogenesis
Question 21.
First Menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called:
(a) Ovum
(b) Sperm
(c) Menses
(d) Menarche
Answer
Answer: (d) Menarche
Question 22.
The release of eggs from the ovary of human female is called:
(a) Plantation
(b) Gestation
(c) Ovulation
(d) Parturition
Answer
Answer: (c) Ovulation
Question 23.
Ovulation regulate by which hormone:
(a) TSH
(b) ACTH
(c) ADH
(d) FSH and LH
Answer
Answer: (c) ADH
Question 24.
The machanism of formation of mature female gamete is:
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Acrosome
(c) Semen
(d) Oogenesis
Answer
Answer: (d) Oogenesis
Question 25.
Fertilization takes place in human :
(a) In uterus
(b) In vagina
(c) In ovary
(d) In fallopian tubes
Answer
Answer: (d) In fallopian tubes
