CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 12 - Biotechnology and its Applications

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Biotechnology and its Applications

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Biotechnology and its Applications

Question 1.
By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:
(a) Inhibition of a Innate gene
(b) An occured Biosynthetic passway develop
(c) A protein occured with genotype expressed his desired
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

---

Question 2.
Adjoining of exotic gene is crop is called :
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Bio architecture
(c) Tissue culture
(d) Immunisation

Answer

Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering

---

Question 3.
Transgenic Golden Rice Highly Nutrient value for:
(a) Lysine
(b) Methionine
(c) Glutanin
(d) Vitamin-A

Answer

Answer: (d) Vitamin-A

---

Question 4.
In a Transgenic crop gene for following:
(a) New protein synthesis
(b) Resistance from Antibiotics
(c) In the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 5.
Transgenic Bacteria and m the making of following :
(a) Epinephrin
(b) Human Insullin
(c) Glutanin
(d) Thyroxin

Answer

Answer: (b) Human Insullin

---

Question 6.
Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from:
(a) One parent for one antigen
(b) Different parents for one antigen
(c) One parent for many antigens
(d) Many parents for many antigens

Answer

Answer: (b) Different parents for one antigen

---

Question 7.
B7 Toxsin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystal protein
(c) Extracellular Crystal protein
(d) Lipid

Answer

Answer: (b) Intracellular crystal protein

---

Question 8.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By cell culture
(d) ByPollen culture

Answer

Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion

---

Question 9.
Which one of the following is a step of PCR?
(a) Denaturation
(b) Annealing
(c) Extension
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Denaturation

---

Question 10.
Restriction Endonuclease used in RDT obtained from:
(a) Plasmid
(b) Bacterial ceils
(c) Bacterophages
(d) All Prokaryotic cells

Answer

Answer: (b) Bacterial ceils

---

Question 11.
The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:
(a) Bacillus thruingiensis
(b) E. Coii
(c) Agrobacterium hizogenes
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer

Answer: (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

---

Question 12.
Which Vitamin has been transferred to golden rice?
(a) Vit-B₁₂
(b) Vit-A
(c) Vit-D
(d) Vit-C

Answer

Answer: (b) Vit-A

---

Question 13.
From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared.
(a) Cymohopogen
(b) Tephrosia
(c) Crysanthemum
(d) Vitivera

Answer

Answer: (c) Crysanthemum

---

Question 14.
Biopiracy is related to the following:
(a) Traditional knowledge
(b) Biomolecules and Bioresources, Isolation of gene from Bioresources
(c) Bioresources
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 15.
The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s:
(a) Udder
(b) Skin
(c) Tongue
(d) Earlobe

Answer

Answer: (c) Tongue

---

Question 16.
Recombinant DNA technology discovered by:
(a) Hargobind Khoorana
(b) James D. Watsan
(c) S. Kohen and H. Boer
(d) Sulton and Boveri

Answer

Answer: (c) S. Kohen and H. Boer

---

Question 17.
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trail:
(a) Insec resistance
(b) Hight lysine (essential amino acid) content
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin A content

Answer

Answer: (c) High protein content

---

Question 18.
The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDA is:
(a) ELISA
(b) Western Plot
(c) ESR
(d) PCR

Answer

Answer: (a) ELISA

---

Question 19.
Some bacterial occured B-7 Toxin’s crystal not kill the Bacteria because of:
(a) Bacteria is Antoxin
(b) Toxin is unripened
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Bacteria enclosed toxin a special sell

Answer

Answer: (c) Toxin is inactive

---

Question 20.
Natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas sp.
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer

Answer: (a) Bacillus subtilis

---

Question 21.
First Transjenic crop was :
(a) Cotton
(b) Alsi
(c) Pea
(d) Tobacco

Answer

Answer: (d) Tobacco

---

Question 22.
Bt toxin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystalline protein
(c) Extracellular crystalline protein
(d) Lipid

Answer

Answer: (a) Intracellular lipid

---

Question 23.
Desired properties plants and Animals are possible by Which reproduction.
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Chromosomal Engineering
(c) Ekabana technology
(d) Bonsai technology

Answer

Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering

---

Question 24.
First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering:
(a) Human insulin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Interferons
(d) Fertility factor

Answer

Answer: (b) Penicillin

---

Question 25.
Anticoagulant hirudin is found in:
(a) In Snake
(b) In Lizard
(c) In Leech
(d) In Scorpion

Answer

Answer: (c) In Leech

---

Question 26.
The species used as natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Agrobacterim tumefaciens
(b) Bacillus thruingiensis
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Drosophila

Answer

Answer: (d) Drosophila

---

Question 27.
Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel:
(a) Biofertilizers
(b) Biometallurgical techniques
(c) Biomineralization processes
(d) Bioinsecticidal plants

Answer

Answer: (a) Biofertilizers

---

Question 28.
Most widely used Bioweapon is:
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Biometallurgial techniques
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Bioinsecticidal plant

Answer

Answer: (d) Bioinsecticidal plant

---

Question 29.
A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is:
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) DNA finger printing
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) DNA finger printing

---

Question 30.
Herbicide resistant gene in plants is:
(a) Ct
(b) Mt
(c) Bt
(d) Gst

Answer

Answer: (d) Gst

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 11 - Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Question 1.
Plasmid is a:
(a) Fungus
(b) Plasmid
(c) Part of Plasma membrane
(d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell

Answer

Answer: (d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell

---

Question 2.
DNA obtained for DNA finger printing:
(a) W.B.C.
(b) Hair root cells
(c) Body fluids
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) W.B.C.

---

Question 3.
Who discovered Restricted endonucleas enzymes?
(a) Smith and Nathane
(b) Baiger
(c) Waxman
(d) Fleming

Answer

Answer: (a) Smith and Nathane

---

Question 4.
Restriction endonuclease cuts:
(a) One stand of DNA at specific site
(b) Both strands of DNA
(c) Both strands of DNA at any site
(d) Single strand of RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) Both strands of DNA

---

Question 5.
Triticale, first man made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with:
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl millet
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley

Answer

Answer: (d) Barley

---

Question 6.
Restrictipn endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from :
(a) Plasmids
(b) AH prokaryotic cells
(c) Bacteriophages
(d) Bacterial cells

Answer

Answer: (d) Bacterial cells

---

Question 7.
Two microbes found tb be very useful in Genetic Engineering are:
(a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Vibrio cholarae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(d) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabdities elegans

Answer

Answer: (a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

---

Question 8.
Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :
(a) High lysin content
(b) Pest resistance
(c) High protien content
(d) High vitamin A content

Answer

Answer: (d) High vitamin A content

---

Question 9.
Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic, engineering are:
(a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Virbio chloerae and tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp and pseudomonas sp.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

---

Question 10.
Transgenic plants are develop by:
(a) Introducing of foreign fenes
(b) Clone and genetically modified genes
(c) Genetic engineering
(d) Purified genes

Answer

Answer: (a) Introducing of foreign fenes

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10 - Microbes in Human Welfare

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Microbes in Human Welfare

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Microbes in Human Welfare

Question 1.
Usnic acid is an antibiotic obtained from :
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Lichens
(d) Algae

Answer

Answer: (c) Lichens

---

Question 2.
By anobacteria are useful biofertilizers in the; field of:
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (c) Rice

---

Question 3.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel:
(a) Bio-metallurigcal techniques
(b) Bio-mineralization process
(c) Bio-insecticidal plants
(d) Bio-fertilizers

Answer

Answer: (c) Bio-insecticidal plants

---

Question 4.
Term antibiotic was first used by :
(a) Flemming
(b) Pasteur
(c) Waksman
(d) Lister

Answer

Answer: (c) Waksman

---

Question 5.
Citric acid is produced by:
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Saccharomyces

Answer

Answer: (a) Rhizopus

---

Question 6.
Streptomycin is produced by:
(a) By Streptomyces Scoleus
(b) By Streptomyces fradiae
(c) By Streptomyces venezueleae
(d) By Streptomyces griseus

Answer

Answer: (d) By Streptomyces griseus

---

Question 7.
For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe is:
(a) Methanophilic bacteria
(b) Butyric acid bacteria
(c) Helicobactor pylon
(d) Streptococcus lactin

Answer

Answer: (b) Butyric acid bacteria

---

Question 8.
Antibiotics are:
(a) Medicines
(b) Toxin
(c) Plants
(d) Syrups

Answer

Answer: (a) Medicines

---

Question 9.
A free living anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Clostridium

Answer

Answer: (d) Clostridium

---

Question 10.
Azoila has symbiotic relationship with:
(a) Chlotfila
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Tolypothrix

Answer

Answer: (b) Anabaena

---

Question 11.
In nostoc, enzyme nitrogenase occurs in :
(a) Vegetative cells
(b) Heterocysts
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only in hormogones

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

---

Question 12.
A free-living aerobic and non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Anabaena
(b) Clostridium
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Rhizobium

Answer

Answer: (c) Azotobactor

---

Question 13.
Streptococcus is used in the preparation of:
(a) Wine
(b) Idli
(c) Paneer
(d) Bread

Answer

Answer: (c) Paneer

---

Question 14.
Nif gene occurs in:
(a) Peiiicillium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Streptococcus

Answer

Answer: (b) Rhizobium

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 9 - Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Question 1.
India’s w heat yield revolution in the 1986s was possible primarily due to:
(a) Mutations resulting in the plant height reduction
(b) Quantitative trait mutations
(c) Hybrid seeds
(d) Increased chlorophyll content

Answer

Answer: (c) Hybrid seeds

---

Question 2.
Choose the cat fish from the following:
(a) Katla Katla
(b) Wallage attu
(c) Labeo rohita
(d) Cirrhinus mrigaja

Answer

Answer: (b) Wallage attu

---

Question 3.
Zoological name of Indian buffalo is:
(a) Bubalus bubalus
(b) Bos indicus
(c) Bos taurus
(d) Gallusgallus

Answer

Answer: (a) Bubalus bubalus

---

Question 4.
Most cultivated plants are:
(a) Autopolyploid
(b) Allopolyploid
(c) Aneuploids
(d) Haploids

Answer

Answer: (b) Allopolyploid

---

Question 5.
Both in callus and suspension culture commonly used auxin is:
(a) NAA
(b) IEA
(c) 2-4D
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: (c) 2-4D

---

Question 6.
One of the following is a disease of poultry:
(a) Anthrax
(b) Pebrine disease
(c) Ranikhet disease
(d) Foot and mouth disease

Answer

Answer: (c) Ranikhet disease

---

Question 7.
Triticale first main-made corral crop has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl mille
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley

Answer

Answer: (a) Rye

---

Question 8.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By Cell culture
(d) By Totipotency

Answer

Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion

---

Question 9.
Norman Borlaugh known as “Father of Green Revolution” has developed new cultivating variety of:
(a) Paddy
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (c) Wheat

---

Question 10.
The best milk breed in the world is:
(a) Chittgong
(b) Deoni
(c) Holstein-Friesian
(d) Sindhi

Answer

Answer: (c) Holstein-Friesian

---

Question 11.
Most nutritious among the following is:
(a) What
(b) Maize
(c) Pearley
(d) Rice

Answer

Answer: (c) Pearley

---

Question 12.
The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called :
(a) Organ culture
(b) Micro-propagation
(c) Macro-propagation
(d) Plantlet culture

Answer

Answer: (b) Micro-propagation

---

Question 13.
The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is :
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Goat-sheep cross
(d) Mashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross

Answer

Answer: (b) Goat

---

Question 14.
Hybrid vagour is induced by:
(a) By Clonal selection
(b) By Crossing of plant
(c) By crossing of two plants
(d) By Species differentiation

Answer

Answer: (c) By crossing of two plants

---

Question 15.
There crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are :
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) Wheat rice and barley
(c) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(d) Rice, maize and sorghum

Answer

Answer: (a) Wheat, rice and maize

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 8 - Human Health and Disease

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – Human Health and Disease

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – Human Health and Disease

Question 1.
Following is Hallucinator
(a) LSD
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocein
(d) Morphin

Answer

Answer: (a) LSD

---

Question 2.
By the plant of which family Heroin is obtained?
(a) Leguminaceae
(b) Papa Veraceae
(c) Liliaece
(d) Solanaceae

Answer

Answer: (b) Papa Veraceae

---

Question 3.
Opiates are obtained from
(a) Thea sinesis
(b) Coffea Arabica
(c) Oryzasativa
(d) Papaver Seminiferum

Answer

Answer: (d) Papaver Seminiferum

---

Question 4.
Which organ of body is most affected by excessive intake of alcohol?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Spleen

Answer

Answer: (b) Liver

---

Question 5.
PCR is test for:
(a) HIV
(b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) HIV

---

Question 6.
Common cold is caused by:
(a) Retro virus
(b) Phage virus
(c) Rhino virus
(d) Sendai virus

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhino virus

---

Question 7.
Following which is STD:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis

Answer

Answer: (d) Syphilis

---

Question 8.
Pain-killer drugs:
(a) Makes Tissue
(b) Relieve from pain
(c) Relieve from tired
(d) Pain creater

Answer

Answer: (c) Relieve from tired

---

Question 9.
AIDS occur by which cause?
(a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
(b) Reduction of Killer T-cells
(c) Auto immune
(d) Less production of interferon

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduction of T-Helper cells

---

Question 10.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filaria in human being. It is of which group:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth

Answer

Answer: (d) Helminth

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is the cancer of blood?
(a) Sarcoma
(b) Lymphoms
(c) Leukemia
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Leukemia

---

Question 12.
Gonorrhoea is caused by:
(a) By Treponema pallidium
(b) By Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) By Mycobacterium taprae
(d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Answer: (d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

---

Question 13.
Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) By Sand fly
(b) By Tsetse fly
(c) By House fly
(d) By Mosquitoes

Answer

Answer: (a) By Sand fly

---

Question 14.
Antigen-binding site in an antibody, is found between:
(a) Two light chains
(b) Two heavy chains
(c) One heavy and one light chain
(d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Answer

Answer: (d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

---

Question 15.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is:
(a) TB
(b) AIDS
(c) Tetanus
(d) Food Poisoning

Answer

Answer: (c) Tetanus

---

Question 16.
Immune deficiency symdrome is caused by:
(a) Defected liver
(b) Defected thymus
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Loss of Immune system

Answer

Answer: (c) AIDS Virus

---

Question 17.
Heroin is the form of :
(a) Aesthetic
(b) Hallucination
(c) Irritation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Hallucination

---

Question 18.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to:
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Live cirrhosis
(c) State of hellucination
(d) Suppresion of brain function

Answer

Answer: (b) Live cirrhosis

---

Question 19.
Widal test is done to confirm:
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer

Answer

Answer: (b) Typhoid

---

Question 20.
World AIDS day is:
(a) 1 May
(b) 20 December
(c) 1 June
(d) 1 December

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 December

---

Question 21.
Which part of poppy plant yields opium:
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dired seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Latex from unripe capsules

---

Question 22.
Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:
(a) Pain Killer
(b) Tranquillizer
(c) Hallucination
(d) Stimulant

Answer

Answer: (d) Stimulant

---

Question 23.
Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Monocytes
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes

Answer

Answer: (d) Lymphocytes

---

Question 24.
Opium is:
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin

Answer

Answer: (c) Heroin

---

Question 25.
AIDS caused by:
(a) By fungus
(b) By Virus
(c) By Bacteria
(d) By Helminthes

Answer

Answer: (b) By Virus

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 7 - Evolution

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – Evolution

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – Evolution

Question 1.
Book ‘Philosophique Zoologique’ was written by:
(a) Lamarck
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Hugo-devries

Answer

Answer: (a) Lamarck

---

Question 2.
Missing link in evolution is:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Limulus
(c) Peripatus
(d) Archaeopterys

Answer

Answer: (d) Archaeopterys

---

Question 3.
Theory of Pangenesis was given by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) DeVries

Answer

Answer: (a) Darwin

---

Question 4.
Which one of the following phenomenon supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
(b) Production of‘Dolly the sheep’ by cloning
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(d) Development of organs from ‘Stem cells’ for organ transplantation

Answer

Answer: (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects

---

Question 5.
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
(a) Ontogeny
(b) Phytogeny
(c) Ancestry
(d) Palaentolgy

Answer

Answer: (b) Phytogeny

---

Question 6.
The biogenetic law of Haeckel is:
(a) Ominis vivum-e-eellula
(b) Omminis cellula-e-cellula
(c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny
(d) Phytogeny repeats ontogeny

Answer

Answer: (c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny

---

Question 7.
Hardy-Weinberg principle explains :
(a) Chromosomal
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Genetic equilibrium
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Genetic equilibrium

---

Question 8.
As per Neo-Darwinism, which is mainly responsible for evolution?
(a) Mutation
(b) Natural drift
(c) Both of these
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural drift

---

Question 9.
Wings of Butterfly and birds are:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Analogous organs

---

Question 10.
Dispersal of population depends on:
(a) On immigration
(b) On Emigration
(c) On Migration
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 6 - Molecular Basis of Inheritance

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 – Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 1.
The ratio constant for a species is :
(a) T+C/G + A
(b) A+C/T + G
(c) G + G/A + T
(d) A + C/C + T

Answer

Answer: (b) A+C/T + G

---

Question 2.
DNA repairing is done by:
(a) By DNA polymerase I
(b) By DNA Polymerase II
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) By Ligase

Answer

Answer: (b) By DNA Polymerase II

---

Question 3.
Represser Lac-Operon protein attached to:
(a) Operator
(b) Inducer
(c) Regulator
(d) β-Glacto sidase

Answer

Answer: (b) Inducer

---

Question 4.
A ribotide is made up of:
(a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
(b) Deoxribose + Uracil + Phosphate
(c) Thymine + Ribose + Phosphate
(d) Deoxyribpse + Phosphate + Adenine

Answer

Answer: (a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil

---

Question 5.
DNA fragments are joined in a correct sequence by :
(a) DNA ligase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase

Answer

Answer: (b) RNA polymerase

---

Question 6.
the enzyme involved in transcription is:
(a) DNA Polymerase I
(b) DNA Polymerase II
(c) RNA Polymerase
(d) DNA Polymerase

Answer

Answer: (d) DNA Polymerase

---

Question 7.
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that:
(a) One strand turns clockwise
(b) One strand turns anticlockwise
(c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position
(d) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

Answer

Answer: (c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position

---

Question 8.
Following is important in Ïranscription:
(a) DNA Methylase
(b) CAAT Box
(c) Promotar
(d) DNA Polymerase

Answer

Answer: (a) DNA Methylase

---

Question 9.
One turn of the helix in p-from DNA is approximately:
(a) 20 Å
(b) 2 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 34 nm

Answer

Answer: (d) 34 nm

---

Question 10.
Which one is mainly transcribed:
(a) Only RNA sequence
(b) Middle repetitive DNA sequence
(c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence
(d) Single copy of DNA sequence

Answer

Answer: (c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence

---

Question 11.
Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of?
(a) c-DNA
(b) r-RNA
(c) f-RNA
(d) m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) r-RNA

---

Question 12.
DNA multiplication is also called:
(a) Replication
(b) Transduction
(c) Translation
(d) Transcription

Answer

Answer: (b) Transduction

---

Question 13.
One of these is not prepared directly from DNA
(a) m-RNA
(b) f-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) Protein

Answer

Answer: (d) Protein

---

Question 14.
During Protein synthesis, atone point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which any one of the three could bring about this halt:
(a) UUC, UUA, UAC
(b) UAG, UGA, UAA
(c) UUE, UCA, UCG
(d) UUU, UCC, UAU

Answer

Answer: (b) UAG, UGA, UAA

---

Question 15.
During splicing axon attached and inducer enzyme for reaction:
(a) RNA Ligase
(b) RNA Catalase
(c) RNA permease
(d) RNA poloymerase

Answer

Answer: (b) RNA Catalase

---

Question 16.
Which is not component of lac operon:
(a) Primer gene
(b) Promoter gene
(c) constructive gene
(d) Regulator gene

Answer

Answer: (c) constructive gene

---

Question 17.
Okazaki fregments is:
(a) RNA primer
(b) small segments of DNA on leading stand
(c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand

---

Question 18.
Transposons occur in:
(a) In Eukaryotes
(b) In Prokaryotes
(c) In both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) In both (a) and (b)

---

Question 19.
Anticodon found in:
(a) On DNA
(b) On t-RNA
(c) On r-RNA
(d) On m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) On t-RNA

---

Question 20.
In DNA helix:
(a) Quadrate structure
(b) Polarity
(c) Antiparallel Polarity
(d) Disuiphide bond

Answer

Answer: (c) Antiparallel Polarity

---

Question 21.
Coiling of DNA duplex is:
(a) Left-handed
(b) Right-handed
(c) Parallel
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Parallel

---

Question 22.
Inprokaryotic translation, GTP molecule required in at:
(a) Formation of formyl-met-f-RNA
(b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA
(c) Joining of 30S m-RNA on Formyl-met-f-RNA
(d) Joining of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

Answer

Answer: (b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA

---

Question 23.
During DNA synthesis formed segment is:
(a) Polymerase fragment
(b) RNA fragment
(c) Okazaki fragment
(d) RNA Primer

Answer

Answer: (c) Okazaki fragment

---

Question 24.
DNA double helix model was given by:
(a) Knoll and Ruska
(b) Khorana
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Priestley

Answer

Answer: (c) Watson and Crick

---

Question 25.
In a give DNA segment ATC ACC AGG ACC CCA ACA, the first base gets mutated. The effect of this on coding by the DNA segment will result in :
(a) One amino acid less in protein
(b) No change in the sequence
(c) Complete change in the type and sequence of amino acid
(d) Change in first amino acid only

Answer

Answer: (b) No change in the sequence

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 5 - Principles of Inheritance and Variation

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 1.
Two genes very close on a chromosome will show:
(a) No crossing over
(b) High crossing over
(c) Hardly an crossing over
(d) Only double crossing overy

Answer

Answer: (a) No crossing over

---

Question 2.
First geneticist/father of genetics was:
(a) de Vries
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Morgan

Answer

Answer: (b) Mendel

---

Question 3.
Cause of chromosomal mutation:
(a) Euploidy
(b) Polyploidy
(c) Physical effect
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 4.
An lndividual with into identical alleles is:
(a) Hybrid
(b) Dominant
(c) Homozygous
(d) Heterozygous

Answer

Answer: (c) Homozygous

---

Question 5.
Mendal’s law can be applicable only when:
(a) Characters are linked
(b) Parents are pore breed
(c) F₁ generation in monohybrid cross show 2 type of individuals
(d) Onepair of contiasting characters depends on another pair

Answer

Answer: (a) Characters are linked

---

Question 6.
A true hybrid condition is:
(a) tt Rr
(b) Tt rr
(c) tt rr
(d) Tt Rr

Answer

Answer: (c) tt rr

---

Question 7.
When F₁ plants heterozygous for tallness are selfed F₂, generation has both tall and dwarf plants. This proves the principle of:
(a) Dominance
(b) Blended inheritance
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (c) Law of segregation

---

Question 8.
The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called :
(a) Co-dominant
(b) Supplementary
(c) Complementary
(d) Recessive

Answer

Answer: (d) Recessive

---

Question 9.
Most of the mutations are:
(a) Recessive
(b) Harmful
(c) Germinal
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Recessive

---

Question 10.
Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is :
(a) Recon
(b) Cistron
(c) Muton
(d) Exon

Answer

Answer: (c) Muton

---

Question 11.
Genes located on V-chroinosome are:
(a) Mutant genes
(b) Autosomal genes
(c) Holandric genes
(d) Sex-linked genes

Answer

Answer: (d) Sex-linked genes

---

Question 12.
A strong mutagen is:
(a) Cold
(b) Heat
(c) Water
(d) X-rays

Answer

Answer: (d) X-rays

---

Question 13.
A point mutation is:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickel-cell anaemia
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Nightblindness

Answer

Answer: (b) Sickel-cell anaemia

---

Question 14.
An organism with two unlike genes of a trait is called :
(a) Homozygous
(b) Hetrozygous
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Hetrozygous

---

Question 15.
Mendel’s formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of:
(a) Test cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Monohybrid cross
(d) Dihybrid cross

Answer

Answer: (c) Monohybrid cross

---

Question 16.
Mendel’s second law is of the law of:
(a) Segregation
(b) Dominance
(c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (d) Independent assortment

---

Question 17.
Name the scientist who discovered the law of Heredity :
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Newton
(c) Piinnett
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Gregor Mendel

---

Question 18.
tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring:
(a) 75% Ineffective
(b) 50% Uneffective
(c) 25% Uneffective
(d) All Effective

Answer

Answer: (b) 50% Uneffective

---

Question 19.
Mendel’s laws were discovered by:
(a) Correns
(b) Shermak
(c) de meris
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 20.
Sucess of mendal is
(a) Selection of Peaplant
(b) Studied of free characters
(c) More Characters selection
(d) Pea is Bisexual

Answer

Answer: (a) Selection of Peaplant

---

Question 21.
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division Cycle result in the gain or loss of a cromosome (s) is called :
(a) Female heterogamety
(b) Male heterogamety
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Female heterogamety

---

Question 22.
Loss of Melanin pigment cause for:
(a) Colourblindness
(b) Depigmentation
(c) Phenyl Ketoneuria
(d) Alkaptoneuria

Answer

Answer: (b) Depigmentation

---

Question 23.
Gunetical identification of male human is:
(a) By Nucleus
(b) By cells
(c) By Autosome
(d) By Sex-chromosome

Answer

Answer: (d) By Sex-chromosome

---

Question 24.
Mendel worked on :
(a) Edible pea
(b) Wild pea
(c) Garden Pea
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Edible pea

---

Question 25.
Exception of Mendel’s law is:
(a) Dominance
(b) Purity of gametes
(c) Linkage
(d) Independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (c) Linkage

---

Question 26.
Rh⁺ individual gene may be:
(a) rr
(b) TT
(c) Rr
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (c) Rr

---

Question 27.
Down’s syndrome is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) can be both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Chromosomal disorder

---

Question 28.
Haemophilia is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) Can be (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Mendelian disorder

---

Question 29.
Mendal was born in:
(a) 17th century
(b) 18th century
(c) 19th century
(d) 8th century

Answer

Answer: (a) 17th century

---

Question 30.
A gamete contains which of the following :
(a) Both alleles of a gene
(b) Only one allele of a gene
(c) Al allele of a gene
(d) No allele

Answer

Answer: (b) Only one allele of a gene

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 4 - Reproductive Health

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Reproductive Health

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Reproductive Health

Question 1.
Central drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named?
(a) Mala-D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms

Answer

Answer: (c) Saheli

---

Question 2.
Which of these is cause by a retrovirus
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis

Answer

Answer: (b) AIDS

---

Question 3.
Fssay on Population was published by :
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Malthus
(d) Hugo de vries

Answer

Answer: (c) Malthus

---

Question 4.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract

Answer

Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus

---

Question 5.
The birth control device not used by women is?
(a) Diaphrame
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper-T

Answer

Answer: (c) Nirodh

---

Question 6.
Test-tube baby is a technique where :
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted

---

Question 7.
Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:
(a) Population density
(b) Population crash
(c) Population explosion
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Population crash

---

Question 8.
Amniocentesis is a process to:
(a) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(b) Know about diseases of brain
(c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo

---

Question 9.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?
(a) Coitus intrruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea

Answer

Answer: (b) Periodic abstinence

---

Question 10.
A method of both control is:
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-T
(d) IUDs

Answer

Answer: (d) IUDs

---

Question 11.
The pre-natal technique to determine the gem. tic disorders in a foetus in called :
(a) Laprosocopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts

Answer

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis

---

Question 12.
Surgical removed of testis of male of control the human population is:
(a) Castration
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Laparoscopy
(d) Vasectomy

Answer

Answer: (a) Castration

---

Question 13.
Which is related to makes?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

---

Question 14.
Drug Ru-486 is used as :
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abortive agent
(c) Amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen

Answer

Answer: (b) Abortive agent

---

Question 15.
‘Saheli’ a female antifertility pill, is used:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Monthly

Answer

Answer: (a) Daily

---

Question 16.
In India, first consus was conducted in:
(a) 1851
(b) 1891
(c) 1921
(d) 1951

Answer

Answer: (b) 1891

---

Question 17.
The most effective method for birth control is:
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization

Answer

Answer: (d) Sterilization

---

Question 18.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Ovulation
(c) Formation of embryo on the wall of Uterus
(d) Interrupt reproductive duct

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovulation

---

Question 19.
Progesteron in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation

---

Question 20.
Lactational Amenorrhoea is related to :
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of menstruation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) ASTD name

Answer

Answer: (a) Temporary method of contraception

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 3 - Human Reproduction

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Human Reproduction

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Human Reproduction

Question 1.
The cavity of blastula Is:
(a) Blastocoel
(b) Coelome
(c) Archentron
(d) Homocoel

Answer

Answer: (b) Coelome

---

Question 2.
The tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Mammary duct
(d) Hymen

Answer

Answer: (a) Clitoris

---

Question 3.
An accessery genital gland of man is:
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Seminal gland
(c) Cowper’s gland
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 4.
Sertolicells present in:
(a) In liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Ovary
(d) in Pancreatic gland

Answer

Answer: (b) In Testis

---

Question 5.
Ovaries produce the female gamete called :
(a) Sperm
(b) Oviducts
(c) Ovum
(d) Prostate

Answer

Answer: (c) Ovum

---

Question 6.
The last part of the oviduct is called :
(a) Isthumus
(b) Ampulla
(c) Fimbriae
(d) Infundibulum

Answer

Answer: (a) Isthumus

---

Question 7.
The finger-like projections in the infundibulum are called:
(a) Fimbriae
(b) Ampulla
(c) Isthmus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Fimbriae

---

Question 8.
The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Isthmus
(d) Hymen

Answer

Answer: (d) Hymen

---

Question 9.
Milk is sucked out from the:
(a) Mammary lobes
(b) Mammary glands
(c) Mammary ducts
(d) Lactiferous duct

Answer

Answer: (d) Lactiferous duct

---

Question 10.
Ovaries are found in the:
(a) In male reproductive system
(b) In Female reproductive system
(c) Can be both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) In Female reproductive system

---

Question 11.
The male reproductive system in located in the :
(a) In Pelvis region
(b) In Thoracic region
(c) In Back region
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In Pelvis region

---

Question 12.
The uterus is single and it is also called :
(a) Fimbrae
(b) Isthmue
(c) Ampulla
(d) Womb

Answer

Answer: (d) Womb

---

Question 13.
The cells which synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called endrogens are:
(a) Germ cells
(b) Ledig cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Germ cells

---

Question 14.
Graafian follice occur:
(a) In humanithyroid
(b) In human female’s ovary
(c) In frog’s ovary
(d) In Rabbits testis

Answer

Answer: (c) In frog’s ovary

---

Question 15.
The grandular tissue of each breast of each breast in divided into 15-20:
(a) Mammary ducts
(b) Mammary glands
(c) mammary lobes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) mammary lobes

---

Question 16.
Leydigicell found in.
(a) In liver
(b) In testis
(c) In kidney
(d) In intestine

Answer

Answer: (b) In testis

---

Question 17.
The nature male germ cells produce sperms by :
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Spermatids
(c) Spermination
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Spermatogenesis

---

Question 18.
In mammals male hormones are produced in:
(a) In Liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Kidney
(d) In Lungs

Answer

Answer: (b) In Testis

---

Question 19.
Gestation period in human female:
(a) 30 Days
(b) 90 Days
(c) 9 Months
(d) 7 Months

Answer

Answer: (c) 9 Months

---

Question 20.
Androgens stimulate the process of?
(a) Body
(b) Head
(c) Tail
(d) Spermatogenesis

Answer

Answer: (d) Spermatogenesis

---

Question 21.
First Menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called:
(a) Ovum
(b) Sperm
(c) Menses
(d) Menarche

Answer

Answer: (d) Menarche

---

Question 22.
The release of eggs from the ovary of human female is called:
(a) Plantation
(b) Gestation
(c) Ovulation
(d) Parturition

Answer

Answer: (c) Ovulation

---

Question 23.
Ovulation regulate by which hormone:
(a) TSH
(b) ACTH
(c) ADH
(d) FSH and LH

Answer

Answer: (c) ADH

---

Question 24.
The machanism of formation of mature female gamete is:
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Acrosome
(c) Semen
(d) Oogenesis

Answer

Answer: (d) Oogenesis

---

Question 25.
Fertilization takes place in human :
(a) In uterus
(b) In vagina
(c) In ovary
(d) In fallopian tubes

Answer

Answer: (d) In fallopian tubes

---

 

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 2 - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 2 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 2 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 1.
Normal Embryosac of Angiosperm is :
(a) Unicellular
(b) Bicelled
(c) Penta celled
(d) Seven called

Answer

Answer: (a) Unicellular

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Question 2.
Development of fruit without fertilizations is:
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Heterostyly
(c) Parthenocarpy
(d) Agamospermy

Answer

Answer: (c) Parthenocarpy

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Question 3.
Commonly in a mature fertilized ovule n, 2n, 3n conditions are respectively found in :
(a) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
(b) Egg. antipodals and endosperm
(c) Integuments, synergids and egg
(d) Egg, nucellus and endosperm

Answer

Answer: (d) Egg, nucellus and endosperm

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Question 4.
Which structure is not found in Angiosperm?
(a) Archegonium
(b) Carpel
(c) Anther
(d) Magagametophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Archegonium

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Question 5.
Demerit of self pollinatlon is:
(a) Unisexua
(b) Dichoganty
(c) Hetorostyle
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Dichoganty

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Question 6.
After fertilization ovule develops into:
(a) Integument
(b) Seed
(c) Embryo
(d) Endosperm

Answer

Answer: (b) Seed

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Question 7.
Totipotency is
(a) Development of a fruit from a flower in a medium
(b) Development of an organ from a cell in a medium
(c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium
(d) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

Answer

Answer: (c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

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Question 8.
Parthenogenesis is common in :
(a) Grape
(b) Mango
(c) Citrus
(d) Litchi

Answer

Answer: (a) Grape

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Question 9.
In an ovule meiotic takes place in:
(a) Nucellus
(b) Megaspore mother cell
(c) Megaspore
(d) Archesporium

Answer

Answer: (b) Megaspore mother cell

---

Question 10.
All of the following structures are found in angiosperms except ?
(a) Archegonium
(b) Pistil
(c) Anther
(d) Megagametophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Archegonium

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Question 11.
In Capsella the endosperm in generally:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Tetraploid

Answer

Answer: (c) Triploid

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Question 12.
An orthrotropous ovule is one in which micropyle and chalaza are :
(a) Oblique to funiculus
(b) At right angles to funiculus
(c) In straight line with funiculus
(d) Parallel to funiculus

Answer

Answer: (c) In straight line with funiculus

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Question 13.
Who proved that the cells are totipotent?
(a) White
(b) Skoog
(c) Miller
(d) Steward

Answer

Answer: (d) Steward

---

Question 14.
Fatheroflndian Angiosperm Embnology is:
(a) B. M. John
(b) B. G L. Swami
(c) R.N. Kapil
(d) P. Maheshwari

Answer

Answer: (d) P. Maheshwari

---

Question 15.
Polymbryony occurs in:
(a) Maize
(b) Citrus
(c) Corchorus
(d) Carthamus

Answer

Answer: (b) Citrus

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Question 16.
In Monocots, grafting is almost impossible because they lack :
(a) Cambium
(b) Ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundle
(d) Parenchymatous cells

Answer

Answer: (a) Cambium

---

Question 17.
A typical angiospermic embryo sac is usually:
(a) One-celled
(b) Two-celled
(c) Five-celled
(d) seven-celled

Answer

Answer: (d) seven-celled

---

Question 18.
Double fertilization in angiosperms was discovered by:
(a) Strassburger
(b) J. C. Bose
(c) Maheshwari
(d) Nawaschin

Answer

Answer: (d) Nawaschin

---

Question 19.
Closed flower:
(a) Decliny
(b) Cteistogamy
(c) Dichogamy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Cteistogamy

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Question 20.
Maturation of male and female sex organs at different times is known as:
(a) Herkogamy
(b) Dichogamy
(c) Polygamy
(d) Apogamy

Answer

Answer: (a) Herkogamy

---

Question 21.
If cotyledons are brought above the soil the germination is:
(a) Hypogeal
(b) Epigeal
(c) Vivipaiy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Epigeal

---

Question 22.
How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce 100 pollen grains ?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (c) 25

---

Question 23.
Pollination in Lotus is:
(a) By water
(b) By wind
(c) By insect
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By water

---

Question 24.
Double fertilization means:
(a) Fusion of two eggs
(b) Fusion of egg and pollen nuder of two pollen grains
(c) Fusion of two polar nuclei with one male gamete
(d) Fusion between synergid cells and male gamete

Answer

Answer: (c) Fusion of two polar nuclei with one male gamete

---

Question 25.
Pollination by snails is called:
(a) Malecophily
(b) Zoophily
(c) Anemophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (a) Malecophily

---

Question 26.
When pollen tube enter into the nucellus through micropyle is called:
(a) Porogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Mesogamy
(d) Dikogamy

Answer

Answer: (a) Porogamy

---

Question 27.
Who discovered fertilization?
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Strassburger
(c) Leeuwen Hock
(d) Robert Hook

Answer

Answer: (b) Strassburger

---

Question 28.
Pollination by bats is called:
(a) omithophily
(b) Entromophily
(c) Cheiropterophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (a) omithophily

---

Question 29.
Haploid plants develop by pollen are called ……..
(a) Emasculation
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) androgenesis
(d) somatic hybridization

Answer

Answer: (d) somatic hybridization

---

Question 30.
When more than one embryoper embryosac is found. It is called:
(a) Embryogeny
(b) Amphimisis
(c) Agamospormy
(d) Polyembryoni

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyembryoni

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CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 1 - Reproduction in Organisms

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 1 – Reproduction in Organisms

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 1 – Reproduction in Organisms

Question 1.
Budding is the example of :
(a) Vegetative reproduction
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Sexual production
(d) Dispersal

Answer

Answer: (a) Vegetative reproduction

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Question 2.
When the gametes of two different strains fuse each other, then this process of reproduction is :
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Asexual, reproduction
(c) Vegetative reproduction
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sexual reproduction

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Question 3.
Earthworm is:
(a) Unisexual
(b) Bisexual
(c) Asexual
(d) Neutral

Answer

Answer: (b) Bisexual

---

Question 4.
What is hexapioid (on), in which total number, of chromosomes are 42. then number of chromosomes in its any gamete:
(a) 14
(b) 28
(c) 42
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (d) 7

---

Question 5.
Vegetative reproduction takes place in Bacteria :
(a) By binary fission
(b) By hybridization
(c) Byfiission
(d) By fission

Answer

Answer: (a) By binary fission

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Question 6.
Asexual reproduction in Penicillium fungus usually takes place through?
(a) Budding
(b) Fission
(c) Conidia
(d) Gemmules

Answer

Answer: (c) Conidia

---

Question 7.
In potato, which structure takes part in vegetative reproduction?
(a) Adventitious root
(b) Apex bud of stem
(c) Germinating eye bud
(d) Arial shoot

Answer

Answer: (c) Germinating eye bud

---

Question 8.
Vegelative reproduction takes place in Bryophyllum :
(a) By buds
(b) By leaves
(c) By seeds
(d) By roots

Answer

Answer: (b) By leaves

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Question 9.
An example of rhizome is
(a) Garlic
(b) Colocassia
(c) Ginger
(d) Onion

Answer

Answer: (c) Ginger

---

Question 10.
Pollination by Bat is called :
(a) Omithorphily
(b) Entemophily
(c) Cheropterophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (c) Cheropterophily

---

Question 11.
Entemophily take place by
(a) By Bird
(b) By Bat
(c) By Wind
(d) By Insect

Answer

Answer: (d) By Insect

---

Question 12.
Which of the following is viviparous?
(a) Cockroach
(b) Scorpion
(c) Bee
(d) Butterfly

Answer

Answer: (b) Scorpion

---

Question 13.
Which structure takes part in gametogenesis :
(a) Male gamete)
(b) Female gamete
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Male or female gamete

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

---

Question 14.
In higher plants, fertilization is :
(a) External
(b) Internal
(c) In water
(d) In air

Answer

Answer: (b) Internal

---

Question 15.
The organism similar to parent can be obtained by:
(a) Speed
(b) Zygote
(c) Gametes
(d) Binary fission

Answer

Answer: (d) Binary fission

---

Question 16.
Anemophily takes place by:
(a) By Bird
(b) By Bat
(c) By Snail
(d) By Wind

Answer

Answer: (d) By Wind

---

Question 17.
The example of bulb is:
(a) Ginger
(b) Doob grass
(c) Onion
(d) Potato

Answer

Answer: (c) Onion

---

Question 18.
The reproduction takes place by gemma :
(a) In higher plants
(b) In lower animals
(c) In some bryophytes
(d) In mammals

Answer

Answer: (c) In some bryophytes

---

Question 19.
The term scion is used in relation to :
(a) Embryology
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Pollen
(d) Grafting

Answer

Answer: (d) Grafting

---

Question 20.
In higher plants, meiosis occurs?
(a) During formation of gametes
(b) During fertilization
(c) During embryogenesis
(d) In seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) During formation of gametes

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CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 16 - Chemistry in Everyday Life

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Chemistry in Everyday Life

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.

 

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 1.
The drugs which are given to the patients suffering from anxiety and metnal tension are known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antimicrobials
(d) antibiotics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers

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Question 2.
Antimicrobial drugs include
(i) antiseptics
(ii) antibiotics
(iii) disinfectants
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

---

Question 3.
Which of the following can be used as an analgesic without causing addiction?
(a) Morphine
(b) Aspirin
(c) Heroin
(d) Codeine

Answer

Answer: (b) Aspirin

---

Question 4.
Which of the following will not act as antacid?
(a) Sodium hydrogencarbonate
(b) Magnesium hydroxide
(c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Aluminium hydroxide

Answer

Answer: (c) Sodium carbonate

---

Question 5.
Which of the following will not act as a tranquilizer?
(a) Equanil
(b) Analgin
(c) Meprobamate
(d) Chlordiazepoxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Analgin

---

Question 6.
Antihistamines are not helpful
(a) in curing nasal allergies
(b) in treating rashes caused by itching
(c) in bringing down acute fever
(d) in vasodilation

Answer

Answer: (c) in bringing down acute fever

---

Question 7.
The chemical substances used to bring down body temperature in high fever are known as
(a) analgesics
(b) antipyretics
(c) antihistamines
(d) tranquilizers

Answer

Answer: (b) antipyretics

---

Question 8.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
(a) agonistic drugs
(b) antagonists drugs
(c) antimicrobial drugs
(d) allosteric drugs

Answer

Answer: (b) antagonists drugs

---

Question 9.
A drug which acts as antipyretic as analgesic is
(a) chloroquin
(b) penicillin
(c) chlorodiazeposide
(d) 4-acetamidophenol

Answer

Answer: (d) 4-acetamidophenol

---

Question 10.
Terfenadine is commonly used as
(a) antihistamine
(b) antibiotic
(c) antimicrobial
(d) antifertility drug

Answer

Answer: (a) antihistamine

---

Question 11.
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) antiseptics
(c) analgesics
(d) antipyretics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers

---

Question 12.
The main cause of acidity in the stomach is
(a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level
(b) indigestion and pain in large intestine
(c) increase the pH level in the stomach
(d) release of extra bile juice which increases alkaline medium in stomach

Answer

Answer: (a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level

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Question 13.
Which of the following statements is not correct about penicillin?
(a) Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum
(b) It is extracted from antibacterial fungus Penicillium
(c) Ampicillin and Amoxycilin are synthetic modification of penicillins
(d) It has bacteriostatic effect

Answer

Answer: (d) It has bacteriostatic effect

---

Question 14.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at low concehtration
(b) Aspirin is analgesic and natipyretic
(c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines
(d) Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic

Answer

Answer: (c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines

---

Question 15.
An ester which is used as a medicine
(a) ethyl acetate
(b) methyl acetate
(c) methyl salicylate
(d) ethyl benzoate

Answer

Answer: (c) methyl salicylate

---

Question 16.
Barbiturates acts as
(a) hypnotic i.e., sleep producing agents
(b) non-narcotic analesics
(c) activator of neurotransmitters
(d) antilallergic drugs

Answer

Answer: (a) hypnotic i.e. sleep producing agents

---

Question 17.
Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic?
(a)Ibuprofen
(b) Aspirin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Morphine

Answer

Answer: (d) Morphine

---

Question 18.
The structure given below is known as

(a) pronstosil
(b) sulphapyridine
(c) chloramphenicol
(d) chloroxylenol

Answer

Answer: (c) chloramphenicol

---

Question 19.
Which ofthe following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Ofloxacin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Prontosil

Answer

Answer: (d) Prontosil

---

Question 20.
The term ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’ means
(a) bacterial antibiotics
(b) bacteriostatic antibiotics
(c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria
(d) which kill or inhibit all types of gram +ve bacteria

Answer

Answer: (c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria

---

Question 21.
A drug which is effective in curring malaria is
(a) aspirin
(b) quinine
(c) morphine
(d) analgin

Answer

Answer: (b) quinine

---

Question 22.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Aspirin is both analgesic and antipyretic
(b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic
(c) Salvarsan is toxic to human beings
(d) Some disinfectants are used as antiseptics in lower concentrations

Answer

Answer: (b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic

---

Question 23.
Which of the following antibiotic is bactericidal?
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Penicillin
(d) Chloramphenicol

Answer

Answer: (c) Penicillin

---

Question 24.
The main constituents of dettol are
(a) chloramphenicol + glycerol
(b) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol
(c) 0.2% solution of phenol
(d) chloroxylenol and terpineol

Answer

Answer: (d) chloroxylenol and terpineol

---

Question 25.
The use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called
(a) chemotherapy
(b) physiotherapy
(c) angiotherapy
(d) polytherapy

Answer

Answer: (a) chemotherapy

---

Question 26.
Which of the following is not an antidepressants?
(a) Ipronizaid
(b) Phenelzine
(c) Equanil
(d) Salvarsan

Answer

Answer: (d) Salvarsan

---

Question 27.
The antibiotic which is effective against certain strain of cancer cells
(a) dysidazirine
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) vancomycin
(d) ofloxacin

Answer

Answer: (a) dysidazirine

---

Question 28.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Penicillin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Tetracyclin

Answer

Answer: (b) Oxytocin

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Question 29.
The use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and drinks because
(a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature
(b) it is 500 times sweeter than cane sugar
(c) it becomes bitter at cooking temperature
(d) it reacts with the food at cooking temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature

---

Question 30.
Which one is a broad spectrum antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Plasmoquin
(c) Xylocaine
(d) Antiseptic

Answer

Answer: (a) Chloramphenicol

---

Question 31.
Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s artive site, instead bind to a different site of enzyme. This site is called
(a) allosteric site
(b) substrate site
(c) ionic site
(d) competitive site

Answer

Answer: (a) allosteric site

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Question 32.
Which of the following compounds represents an analgesic?

Answer

Answer: (a)

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Question 33.
Name an artificial sweetner which is derivative of sucrose
(a) Saccharine
(b) Sucrolose
(c) Sucrobenzamide
(d) Aspartame

Answer

Answer: (b) Sucrolose

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Question 34.
What is tincture of iodine?
(a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture
(b) A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol
(c) A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water
(d) 2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide

Answer

Answer: (a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture

---

Question 35.
What is the problem faced while using alitame as artificial sweetener?
(a) It decomposes when added to the food items
(b) It provides a huge number of calories to the food
(c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it
(d) It increases the volume of the contents to a large extent

Answer

Answer: (c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it

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