CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 2 - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 2 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 2 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 1.
Normal Embryosac of Angiosperm is :
(a) Unicellular
(b) Bicelled
(c) Penta celled
(d) Seven called

Answer

Answer: (a) Unicellular


Question 2.
Development of fruit without fertilizations is:
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Heterostyly
(c) Parthenocarpy
(d) Agamospermy

Answer

Answer: (c) Parthenocarpy


Question 3.
Commonly in a mature fertilized ovule n, 2n, 3n conditions are respectively found in :
(a) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
(b) Egg. antipodals and endosperm
(c) Integuments, synergids and egg
(d) Egg, nucellus and endosperm

Answer

Answer: (d) Egg, nucellus and endosperm


Question 4.
Which structure is not found in Angiosperm?
(a) Archegonium
(b) Carpel
(c) Anther
(d) Magagametophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Archegonium


Question 5.
Demerit of self pollinatlon is:
(a) Unisexua
(b) Dichoganty
(c) Hetorostyle
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Dichoganty


Question 6.
After fertilization ovule develops into:
(a) Integument
(b) Seed
(c) Embryo
(d) Endosperm

Answer

Answer: (b) Seed


Question 7.
Totipotency is
(a) Development of a fruit from a flower in a medium
(b) Development of an organ from a cell in a medium
(c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium
(d) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

Answer

Answer: (c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium


Question 8.
Parthenogenesis is common in :
(a) Grape
(b) Mango
(c) Citrus
(d) Litchi

Answer

Answer: (a) Grape


Question 9.
In an ovule meiotic takes place in:
(a) Nucellus
(b) Megaspore mother cell
(c) Megaspore
(d) Archesporium

Answer

Answer: (b) Megaspore mother cell


Question 10.
All of the following structures are found in angiosperms except ?
(a) Archegonium
(b) Pistil
(c) Anther
(d) Megagametophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Archegonium


Question 11.
In Capsella the endosperm in generally:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Tetraploid

Answer

Answer: (c) Triploid


Question 12.
An orthrotropous ovule is one in which micropyle and chalaza are :
(a) Oblique to funiculus
(b) At right angles to funiculus
(c) In straight line with funiculus
(d) Parallel to funiculus

Answer

Answer: (c) In straight line with funiculus


Question 13.
Who proved that the cells are totipotent?
(a) White
(b) Skoog
(c) Miller
(d) Steward

Answer

Answer: (d) Steward


Question 14.
Fatheroflndian Angiosperm Embnology is:
(a) B. M. John
(b) B. G L. Swami
(c) R.N. Kapil
(d) P. Maheshwari

Answer

Answer: (d) P. Maheshwari


Question 15.
Polymbryony occurs in:
(a) Maize
(b) Citrus
(c) Corchorus
(d) Carthamus

Answer

Answer: (b) Citrus


Question 16.
In Monocots, grafting is almost impossible because they lack :
(a) Cambium
(b) Ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundle
(d) Parenchymatous cells

Answer

Answer: (a) Cambium


Question 17.
A typical angiospermic embryo sac is usually:
(a) One-celled
(b) Two-celled
(c) Five-celled
(d) seven-celled

Answer

Answer: (d) seven-celled


Question 18.
Double fertilization in angiosperms was discovered by:
(a) Strassburger
(b) J. C. Bose
(c) Maheshwari
(d) Nawaschin

Answer

Answer: (d) Nawaschin


Question 19.
Closed flower:
(a) Decliny
(b) Cteistogamy
(c) Dichogamy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Cteistogamy


Question 20.
Maturation of male and female sex organs at different times is known as:
(a) Herkogamy
(b) Dichogamy
(c) Polygamy
(d) Apogamy

Answer

Answer: (a) Herkogamy


Question 21.
If cotyledons are brought above the soil the germination is:
(a) Hypogeal
(b) Epigeal
(c) Vivipaiy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Epigeal


Question 22.
How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce 100 pollen grains ?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (c) 25


Question 23.
Pollination in Lotus is:
(a) By water
(b) By wind
(c) By insect
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By water


Question 24.
Double fertilization means:
(a) Fusion of two eggs
(b) Fusion of egg and pollen nuder of two pollen grains
(c) Fusion of two polar nuclei with one male gamete
(d) Fusion between synergid cells and male gamete

Answer

Answer: (c) Fusion of two polar nuclei with one male gamete


Question 25.
Pollination by snails is called:
(a) Malecophily
(b) Zoophily
(c) Anemophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (a) Malecophily


Question 26.
When pollen tube enter into the nucellus through micropyle is called:
(a) Porogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Mesogamy
(d) Dikogamy

Answer

Answer: (a) Porogamy


Question 27.
Who discovered fertilization?
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Strassburger
(c) Leeuwen Hock
(d) Robert Hook

Answer

Answer: (b) Strassburger


Question 28.
Pollination by bats is called:
(a) omithophily
(b) Entromophily
(c) Cheiropterophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (a) omithophily


Question 29.
Haploid plants develop by pollen are called ……..
(a) Emasculation
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) androgenesis
(d) somatic hybridization

Answer

Answer: (d) somatic hybridization


Question 30.
When more than one embryoper embryosac is found. It is called:
(a) Embryogeny
(b) Amphimisis
(c) Agamospormy
(d) Polyembryoni

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyembryoni


 

CBSE Class 12 Biology - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 1 - Reproduction in Organisms

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 1 – Reproduction in Organisms

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

 

CBSE Class 12 Biology – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 1 – Reproduction in Organisms

Question 1.
Budding is the example of :
(a) Vegetative reproduction
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Sexual production
(d) Dispersal

Answer

Answer: (a) Vegetative reproduction


Question 2.
When the gametes of two different strains fuse each other, then this process of reproduction is :
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Asexual, reproduction
(c) Vegetative reproduction
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sexual reproduction


Question 3.
Earthworm is:
(a) Unisexual
(b) Bisexual
(c) Asexual
(d) Neutral

Answer

Answer: (b) Bisexual


Question 4.
What is hexapioid (on), in which total number, of chromosomes are 42. then number of chromosomes in its any gamete:
(a) 14
(b) 28
(c) 42
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (d) 7


Question 5.
Vegetative reproduction takes place in Bacteria :
(a) By binary fission
(b) By hybridization
(c) Byfiission
(d) By fission

Answer

Answer: (a) By binary fission


Question 6.
Asexual reproduction in Penicillium fungus usually takes place through?
(a) Budding
(b) Fission
(c) Conidia
(d) Gemmules

Answer

Answer: (c) Conidia


Question 7.
In potato, which structure takes part in vegetative reproduction?
(a) Adventitious root
(b) Apex bud of stem
(c) Germinating eye bud
(d) Arial shoot

Answer

Answer: (c) Germinating eye bud


Question 8.
Vegelative reproduction takes place in Bryophyllum :
(a) By buds
(b) By leaves
(c) By seeds
(d) By roots

Answer

Answer: (b) By leaves


Question 9.
An example of rhizome is
(a) Garlic
(b) Colocassia
(c) Ginger
(d) Onion

Answer

Answer: (c) Ginger


Question 10.
Pollination by Bat is called :
(a) Omithorphily
(b) Entemophily
(c) Cheropterophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (c) Cheropterophily


Question 11.
Entemophily take place by
(a) By Bird
(b) By Bat
(c) By Wind
(d) By Insect

Answer

Answer: (d) By Insect


Question 12.
Which of the following is viviparous?
(a) Cockroach
(b) Scorpion
(c) Bee
(d) Butterfly

Answer

Answer: (b) Scorpion


Question 13.
Which structure takes part in gametogenesis :
(a) Male gamete)
(b) Female gamete
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Male or female gamete

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 14.
In higher plants, fertilization is :
(a) External
(b) Internal
(c) In water
(d) In air

Answer

Answer: (b) Internal


Question 15.
The organism similar to parent can be obtained by:
(a) Speed
(b) Zygote
(c) Gametes
(d) Binary fission

Answer

Answer: (d) Binary fission


Question 16.
Anemophily takes place by:
(a) By Bird
(b) By Bat
(c) By Snail
(d) By Wind

Answer

Answer: (d) By Wind


Question 17.
The example of bulb is:
(a) Ginger
(b) Doob grass
(c) Onion
(d) Potato

Answer

Answer: (c) Onion


Question 18.
The reproduction takes place by gemma :
(a) In higher plants
(b) In lower animals
(c) In some bryophytes
(d) In mammals

Answer

Answer: (c) In some bryophytes


Question 19.
The term scion is used in relation to :
(a) Embryology
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Pollen
(d) Grafting

Answer

Answer: (d) Grafting


Question 20.
In higher plants, meiosis occurs?
(a) During formation of gametes
(b) During fertilization
(c) During embryogenesis
(d) In seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) During formation of gametes


 

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 16 - Chemistry in Everyday Life

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Chemistry in Everyday Life

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 16 – Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 1.
The drugs which are given to the patients suffering from anxiety and metnal tension are known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antimicrobials
(d) antibiotics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers


Question 2.
Antimicrobial drugs include
(i) antiseptics
(ii) antibiotics
(iii) disinfectants
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)


Question 3.
Which of the following can be used as an analgesic without causing addiction?
(a) Morphine
(b) Aspirin
(c) Heroin
(d) Codeine

Answer

Answer: (b) Aspirin


Question 4.
Which of the following will not act as antacid?
(a) Sodium hydrogencarbonate
(b) Magnesium hydroxide
(c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Aluminium hydroxide

Answer

Answer: (c) Sodium carbonate


Question 5.
Which of the following will not act as a tranquilizer?
(a) Equanil
(b) Analgin
(c) Meprobamate
(d) Chlordiazepoxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Analgin


Question 6.
Antihistamines are not helpful
(a) in curing nasal allergies
(b) in treating rashes caused by itching
(c) in bringing down acute fever
(d) in vasodilation

Answer

Answer: (c) in bringing down acute fever


Question 7.
The chemical substances used to bring down body temperature in high fever are known as
(a) analgesics
(b) antipyretics
(c) antihistamines
(d) tranquilizers

Answer

Answer: (b) antipyretics


Question 8.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
(a) agonistic drugs
(b) antagonists drugs
(c) antimicrobial drugs
(d) allosteric drugs

Answer

Answer: (b) antagonists drugs


Question 9.
A drug which acts as antipyretic as analgesic is
(a) chloroquin
(b) penicillin
(c) chlorodiazeposide
(d) 4-acetamidophenol

Answer

Answer: (d) 4-acetamidophenol


Question 10.
Terfenadine is commonly used as
(a) antihistamine
(b) antibiotic
(c) antimicrobial
(d) antifertility drug

Answer

Answer: (a) antihistamine


Question 11.
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) antiseptics
(c) analgesics
(d) antipyretics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers


Question 12.
The main cause of acidity in the stomach is
(a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level
(b) indigestion and pain in large intestine
(c) increase the pH level in the stomach
(d) release of extra bile juice which increases alkaline medium in stomach

Answer

Answer: (a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level


Question 13.
Which of the following statements is not correct about penicillin?
(a) Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum
(b) It is extracted from antibacterial fungus Penicillium
(c) Ampicillin and Amoxycilin are synthetic modification of penicillins
(d) It has bacteriostatic effect

Answer

Answer: (d) It has bacteriostatic effect


Question 14.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at low concehtration
(b) Aspirin is analgesic and natipyretic
(c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines
(d) Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic

Answer

Answer: (c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines


Question 15.
An ester which is used as a medicine
(a) ethyl acetate
(b) methyl acetate
(c) methyl salicylate
(d) ethyl benzoate

Answer

Answer: (c) methyl salicylate


Question 16.
Barbiturates acts as
(a) hypnotic i.e., sleep producing agents
(b) non-narcotic analesics
(c) activator of neurotransmitters
(d) antilallergic drugs

Answer

Answer: (a) hypnotic i.e. sleep producing agents


Question 17.
Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic?
(a)Ibuprofen
(b) Aspirin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Morphine

Answer

Answer: (d) Morphine


Question 18.
The structure given below is known as
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers
(a) pronstosil
(b) sulphapyridine
(c) chloramphenicol
(d) chloroxylenol

Answer

Answer: (c) chloramphenicol


Question 19.
Which ofthe following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Ofloxacin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Prontosil

Answer

Answer: (d) Prontosil


Question 20.
The term ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’ means
(a) bacterial antibiotics
(b) bacteriostatic antibiotics
(c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria
(d) which kill or inhibit all types of gram +ve bacteria

Answer

Answer: (c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria


Question 21.
A drug which is effective in curring malaria is
(a) aspirin
(b) quinine
(c) morphine
(d) analgin

Answer

Answer: (b) quinine


Question 22.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Aspirin is both analgesic and antipyretic
(b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic
(c) Salvarsan is toxic to human beings
(d) Some disinfectants are used as antiseptics in lower concentrations

Answer

Answer: (b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic


Question 23.
Which of the following antibiotic is bactericidal?
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Penicillin
(d) Chloramphenicol

Answer

Answer: (c) Penicillin


Question 24.
The main constituents of dettol are
(a) chloramphenicol + glycerol
(b) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol
(c) 0.2% solution of phenol
(d) chloroxylenol and terpineol

Answer

Answer: (d) chloroxylenol and terpineol


Question 25.
The use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called
(a) chemotherapy
(b) physiotherapy
(c) angiotherapy
(d) polytherapy

Answer

Answer: (a) chemotherapy


Question 26.
Which of the following is not an antidepressants?
(a) Ipronizaid
(b) Phenelzine
(c) Equanil
(d) Salvarsan

Answer

Answer: (d) Salvarsan


Question 27.
The antibiotic which is effective against certain strain of cancer cells
(a) dysidazirine
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) vancomycin
(d) ofloxacin

Answer

Answer: (a) dysidazirine


Question 28.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Penicillin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Tetracyclin

Answer

Answer: (b) Oxytocin


Question 29.
The use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and drinks because
(a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature
(b) it is 500 times sweeter than cane sugar
(c) it becomes bitter at cooking temperature
(d) it reacts with the food at cooking temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature


Question 30.
Which one is a broad spectrum antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Plasmoquin
(c) Xylocaine
(d) Antiseptic

Answer

Answer: (a) Chloramphenicol


Question 31.
Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s artive site, instead bind to a different site of enzyme. This site is called
(a) allosteric site
(b) substrate site
(c) ionic site
(d) competitive site

Answer

Answer: (a) allosteric site


Question 32.
Which of the following compounds represents an analgesic?
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 33.
Name an artificial sweetner which is derivative of sucrose
(a) Saccharine
(b) Sucrolose
(c) Sucrobenzamide
(d) Aspartame

Answer

Answer: (b) Sucrolose


Question 34.
What is tincture of iodine?
(a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture
(b) A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol
(c) A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water
(d) 2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide

Answer

Answer: (a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture


Question 35.
What is the problem faced while using alitame as artificial sweetener?
(a) It decomposes when added to the food items
(b) It provides a huge number of calories to the food
(c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it
(d) It increases the volume of the contents to a large extent

Answer

Answer: (c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it


 

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 15 - Polymers

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Polymers

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Polymers

Question 1.
Glycogen, anaturally occuring polymer stored in animals is a
(a) monosaccharide
(b) disaccharide
(c) trisaccharide
(d) polysaccharide

Answer

Answer: (d) polysaccharide


Question 2.
Dacron is an example of
(a) polyamides
(b) polypropenes
(c) polyacrylnitrfle
(d) polyesters

Answer

Answer: (d) polyesters


Question 3.
Nylon 6, 6 is obtained by condensation polymerisation of
(a) adipic acid and ethylene glycol
(b) adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
(c) terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
(d) adipic acid and phenol

Answer

Answer: (b) adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine


Question 4.
The correct structure of monomers of buna-S is
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers with Answers

Answer

Answer: (c)


Question 5.
Terylerte is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and
(a) benzoic acid
(b) phthalic acid
(c) dimethyl terephthalate
(d) salicylic acid

Answer

Answer: (c) dimethyl terephthalate


Question 6.
Natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) 1, 1-dimethylbufadiene
(b) 2-methyl-1, 3-rbutadiene
(c) 2-chlorobuta-1, 3-diene
(d) 2-chlorobut-2-ene

Answer

Answer: (b) 2-methyl-1, 3rbutadiene


Question 7.
Composition of Ziegler-Natta catalyst is
(a) (Et3)3Al.TiCl2
(b) (Me)3Al.TiCl2
(c) (Et)3Al.TiCl4
(d) (Et)3Al.PtCl4

Answer

Answer: (c) (Et)3Al.TiCl4


Question 8.
Heating rubber with sulphur is known as
(a) galvanisation
(b) bessemerisation
(c) vulcanisation
(d) sulphonation

Answer

Answer: (c) vulcanisation


Question 9.
Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
(a) Teflon
(b) PVC
(c) Polyester
(d) Neoprene

Answer

Answer: (c) Polyester


Question 10.
Which of the following polymers does not involve cross-linkages?
(a) Vulcanised rubber
(b) Bakelite
(c) Melamine
(d) Teflon

Answer

Answer: (d) Teflon


Question 11.
Which of the following is not an example of addition polymer?
(a) Polythene
(b) Polystyrene
(c) Neoprene
(d) Nylon 6,6

Answer

Answer: (d) Nylon 6,6


Question 12.
Bakelite is an example of
(a) elastomer
(b) fibre
(c) thermoplastic
(d) thermosetting

Answer

Answer: (d) thermosetting


Question 13.
The S in buna-S refers to
(a) Sulphur
(b) Styrene
(c) Sodium
(d) Salicylate

Answer

Answer: (b) Styrene


Question 14.
Teflon and neoprene are the examples of
(a) copolymers
(b) monomers
(c) homopolymers
(d) condensation polymers

Answer

Answer: (c) homopolymers


Question 15.
The monomers used in addition polymerisation through free radical should be very pure because
(a) the traces of impurities act like inhibitors resulting in short chain polymers
(b) the impurities result in formation of different products
(c) the polymer formed is impure
(d) catalyst does not function in presence of impurities

Answer

Answer: (a) the traces of impurities act like inhibitors resulting in short chain polymers


Question 16.
Which among the following is a cross-linked polymer?
(a) Polyesters
(b) Glycogens
(c) Melamine-formaldehyde
(d) Polyvinyl chloride

Answer

Answer: (c) Melamine-formaldehyde


Question 17.
Which of the following polymers does not have vinylic monomer units?
(a) Acrilan
(b) Nylon
(c) Polystyrene
(d) Neoprene

Answer

Answer: (b) Nylon


Question 18.
Synthetic polymer prepared by using caprolactam is known as
(a) terylene
(b) teflon
(c) nylon 6
(d) neoprene

Answer

Answer: (c) nylon 6


Question 19.
Polymer which has amide linkage is
(a) nylon-6, 6
(b) terylene
(c) teflon
(d) bakelite

Answer

Answer: (a) nylon-6, 6


Question 20.
Which of the following are thermoplastic polymers?
(a) Polythene, urea-formaldehyde, polyvinyls
(b) Bakelite, polythene, polystyrene
(c) Polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyls
(d) Urea-formaldehyde, polystyrene, bakelite

Answer

Answer: (c) Polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyls


Question 21.
Which of the following sets contains only addition polymers?
(a) Polyethylene, polypropylene, terylene
(b) Polyethylene, PVC, acrilan
(c) Buna-S, nylon, polybutadiene
(d) Bakelite, PVC, polyethylene

Answer

Answer: (b) Polyethylene, PVC, acrilan


Question 22.
Which of the following is not an example of rubber?
(a) Polychloroprene
(b) Buna-N
(c) Butadiene-styrene copolymer
(d) Polyacrylonitrile

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyacrylonitrile


Question 23.
cis-Polyisoprene possesses elastic property because
(a) It is soft and soluble in non-polar solvent
(b) It is unsaturated and porous
(c) It has a coiled structure and chains held together by weak van der waals forces
(d) It has fibrous structure and reactive sites at various double bonds

Answer

Answer: (c) It has a coiled structure and chains held together by weak van der waals forces


Question 24.
Identify the type of polymer
(i) -A-A-A-A-A-A-
(ii) -A-B-B-A-A-A-B-A-
(a) (i) Homopolymer, (ii) Copolymer
(b) (i) Natural polymer, (ii) Synthetic polymer
(c) (i) Linear polymer, (ii) Branched polymer
(d) (i) Fibre, (ii) Elastomer

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) Homopolymer, (ii) Copolymer


Question 25.
Arrange the following polymers is an increasing order of intenqolecular forces: fibre, plastic, elastomer
(a) Elastomer < Fibre < Plastic
(b) Elastomer < Plastic < Fibre
(c) Plastic < Elastomer < Fibre
(d) Fibre < Elastomer < Plastic

Answer

Answer: (b) Elastomer < Plastic < Fibre


 

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 14 - Biomolecules

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Biomolecules

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 13 - Amines

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Amines

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 12 - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 11 - Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10 - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 9 - Coordination Compounds

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 9 – Coordination Compounds

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 8 - The d-and f-Block Elements

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 8 – The d-and f-Block Elements

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 7 - The p-Block Elements

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 7 – The p-Block Elements

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 6 - general Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 6 –  general Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 5 - Surface Chemistry

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 5 – Surface Chemistry

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 4 - Chemical Kinetics

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 4 – Chemical Kinetics

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 3 - Electrochemistry

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 3 – Electrochemistry

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 2 - Solutions

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 2 – Solutions

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 1 - The Solid State

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 1 – The Solid State

CBSE Class 12 Physics - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 15 - Communication Systems

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Communication Systems

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 15 – Communication Systems

Question 1.
Digital signals:
(a) deal with all sort of values
(b) can use decimal system
(c) can use binary system
(d) (b) and (c) both

Answer

Answer: (d) (b) and (c) both


Question 2.
Which of the following is not transducer?
(a) Loudspeaker
(b) Amplifier
(c) Microphone
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (b) Amplifier


Question 3.
The space waves which are affected seriously by atmospheric conditions are:
(a) MF
(b) HUF
(c) VHF
(d) UHF

Answer

Answer: (d) UHF


Question 4.
Increase in frequency deviation results into:
(a) increase in noise of FM receiver
(b) decrease in noise of AM receiver
(c) increase in noise of Am receiver
(d) decrease in noise of FM receiver

Answer

Answer: (b) decrease in noise of AM receiver


Question 5.
An antenna is:
(a) Inductive
(b) Capacitive
(c) Resistive
(d) A transformer

Answer

Answer: (a) Inductive


Question 6.
AM is used for broadcasting because:
(a) it is more noise immune than other modulation system
(b) it requires less transmitting power compare with other systems
(c) its use avoids receiver complexity
(d) No other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth faithful transmission

Answer

Answer: (c) its use avoids receiver complexity


Question 7.
Broadcasting antenna are generally:
(a) Ommi directional type
(b) Vertical type
(c) Horizontal type
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Vertical type


Question 8.
Who undertook the first space walk and in which year?
(a) Leonov 1965
(b) Neil Armstrong, 1969
(c) Rakesh Sharma. 1998
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Leonov 1965


Question 9.
The modulation index in amplitude modulation is:
(a) Always zero
(b) Between 0 and 1
(c) Between 1 and ∞
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Between 1 and ∞


Question 10.
The output of a digital computer is an example of:
(a) digital signal
(b) analog signal
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) digital signal


Question 11.
The term used “to collect the information about an object and a place without physical contact” is called :
(a) modulation
(b) communication
(c) amplification
(d) remote sensing




Answer

Answer: (d) remote sensing


Question 12.
Name the man who was first to place his foot on the moon and in which year:
(a) Neil Armstrong, 1969
(b) James Van A lien, 1971
(c) Leonov, 1965
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Neil Armstrong, 1969


Question 13.
A microphone converts:
(a) sound signals into electrical signals
(b) electrical signals into sound signals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) sound signals into electrical signals


Question 14.
The wavelength of a wave of frequency 10 kHz is:
(a) 30 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 30 km
(d) 300 km

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 km


Question 15.
A loudspeaker converts:
(a) electrical signals into sound signals
(b) sound signals into electrical signals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) electrical signals into sound signals


Question 16.
The sound produced by a tuning fork is a sort of:
(a) analog signal
(b) digital signal
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) analog signal


Question 17.
The velocity of electromagnetic wave is:
(a) 3 × 105 ms-1
(b) 3 × 106 ms-1
(c) 3 × 108 ms-1
(d) 3 × 1010 ms-1

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 × 108 ms-1


Question 18.
The audio frequencies range from:
(a) 20 Hz to 20.000 kHz
(b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(c) 20 kHz to 20.000 kHz
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz


Question 19.
The length of a half wave dipole at 30 mega-hertz is:
(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 80 m

Answer

Answer: (a) 5 m


Question 20.
In space communication, the sound waves can be sent from one place to another:
(a) through space
(b) through wires
(c) by superimposing it on undamped electro-magnetic waves
(d) by superimposing it on damped electro-magnetic waves

Answer

Answer: (c) by superimposing it on undamped electro-magnetic waves


Question 21.
The area served by an antenna of height 100 m is:
(a) 109
(b) 4 × 109
(c) 6 × 109
(d) 8 × 1010

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 × 109


Question 22.
The output of a digital computer is an example of:
(a) digital signal
(b) analog signal
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) digital signal


Question 23.
Which is more advantageous?
(a) analog data communication
(b) digital data communication
(c) both (a) and (b) are equally good
(d) depends on the situation

Answer

Answer: (b) digital data communication


Question 24.
Communication channel consists of:
(a) transmission line only
(b) optical fibre only
(c) free space only
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 25.
Digital signals:
(a) represents values as discrete steps
(b) Do not represents values as discrete steps
(c) represent values steps
(d) represent random steps

Answer

Answer: (a) represents values as discrete steps


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 14 - Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 14 – Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 1.
Main function of a transistor is to :
(a) rectify
(b) simplify
(c) amplify
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) amplify


Question 2.
To obtain p-type silicon semiconductor, we need to dope pure silicon with:
(a) aluminium
(b) phosphorus
(c) oxygen
(d)germanium

Answer

Answer: (a) aluminium


Question 3.
In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, the number of electrons and holes are:
(a) equal
(b) unequal
(c) infinite
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) equal


Question 4.
On applying reverse bias to a junction diode, it:
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) raise the potential barrier
(c) increases the majority carrier current
(d) increases the minority carrier current

Answer

Answer: (b) raise the potential barrier


Question 5.
With fall of temperature, the forbidden energy gap of a semiconductor
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
(d) remains unchanged

Answer

Answer: (d) remains unchanged


Question 6.
For germanium crystal, the forbidden energy gap in joules
(a) 1.216 × 10-19
(b) 1.76 × 10-19
(c) 1.6 × 10-19
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.216 × 10-19


Question 7.
Number of electrons in the valence shell of a semiconductor is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4


Question 8.
To obtain electrons as majority charge carriers in a semiconductors the impurity mixed is:
(a) monovalent
(b) divalent
(c) trivalent
(d) pentavalent

Answer

Answer: (b) divalent


Question 9.
In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse biased p-n junction, the:
(a) electric field is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential zero.

Answer

Answer: (d) potential zero.


Question 10.
Bonds in a semiconductor :
(a) trivalent
(b) covalent
(c) bivalent
(d) monovalent

Answer

Answer: (b) covalent


Question 11.
In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and output voltage is :
(a) π/2
(b) 0
(c) π/4
(d) π

Answer

Answer: (b) 0


Question 12.
Energy bands in solids are a consequence of:
(a) Ohm’s Law
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Bohr’s theory
(d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

Answer

Answer: (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle


Question 13.
Semiconductors of both p-type and n-type are produced by:
(a) ionic solids
(b) covalent solids
(c) metallic solids
(d) molecular solids

Answer

Answer: (b) covalent solids


Question 14.
In semi conductor which are responsible for conduction:
(a) only electron
(b) electron and hole both
(c) only hole
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) electron and hole both


Question 15.
In a p-type semiconductor, current conduction is by:
(a) atoms
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) protons

Answer

Answer: (b) holes


Question 16.
In binary system III represents:
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 100

Answer

Answer: (c) 7


Question 17.
On heating, resistance of semiconductors:
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) first increases then decreases

Answer

Answer: (a) decreases


Question 18.
The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by:
(a) n ∝ T
(b) n ∝ T²
(c) n ∝ T1/2
(d) n ∝ T3/2

Answer

Answer: (d) n ∝ T3/2


Question 19.
p-n junction diode can be used as:
(a) amplifier
(b) oscillator
(c) detector
(d) modulator

Answer

Answer: (c) detector


Question 20.
In reverse biasing:
(a) large amount of current flows
(b) no current flows
(c) potential barrier across junction increases
(d) depletion layer resistance increases

Answer

Answer: (c) potential barrier across junction increases


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 13 - Nuclei

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Nuclei

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 13 – Nuclei

Question 1.
The half life of a radioactive decay is n times its mean life, n is equal to:
(a) 0.6930
(b) 0.0693
(c) \(\frac{1}{0.6930}\)
(d) 0.3070

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.6930


Question 2.
An electron and a positron each having a mass equivalent to 0.53 MeV annihilate each other and produce a photon. The minimum energy of the photon is.
(a) 0.53 MeV
(b) 1.06 MeV
(c) 2.12 MeV
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.06 MeV


Question 3.
If radio active nuclei emits β-particle, then mass-number:
(a) increased by 1 unit
(b) decreases by 1 unit
(c) increases by 2 unit
(d) decreases by 2 unit

Answer

Answer: (a) increased by 1 unit


Question 4.
Rutherford is the unit of:
(a) radioactivity
(b) energy
(c) photoelectric current
(d) magnetic field

Answer

Answer: (a) radioactivity


Question 5.
The wavelength of y-rays is of the order of:
(a) 10-8 m
(b) 10-5 m
(c) 10-11 m
(d) 10-22 m

Answer

Answer: (c) 10-11 m


Question 6.
How many electrons are contained in \(_{92}^{238}\)U nucleus?
(a) 92
(b) 146
(c) 238
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (d) 0


Question 7.
Radius of 1st Bohr orbit is a0 (= 0.529 Ã…) What is the radius of 2nd Bohr orbit?
(a) 10-8
(b) 2a0
(c) 4a0
(d) 2√2a0

Answer

Answer: (c) 4a0


Question 8.
According to Yukawa’s theory of nuclear forces, the origin of nuclear force between nucleons is due to the exchange of
(a) mesons
(b) photons
(c) electrons
(d) positrons

Answer

Answer: (b) photons


Question 9.
The ground state energy of Hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of electron in this state?
(a) 0 eV
(b) -13.6 eV
(c) 2 eV
(d) -27.2 eV

Answer

Answer: (d) -27.2 eV


Question 10.
Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?
(a) \(_{8}^{8}\)O
(b) \(_{7}^{14}\)N
(c) \(_{55}^{133}\)Cs
(d) \(_{18}^{40}\)Ar

Answer

Answer: (c) \(_{55}^{133}\)Cs


Question 11.
Nuclear force is:
(a) strong, short range and charge independent force
(b) charge independent, attractive and long range force
(c) strong, charge dependent and short range attractive force
(d) long range, change dependent and attractive force

Answer

Answer: (a) strong, short range and charge independent force


Question 12.
In the given reaction:
\(_{Z}^{A}\)X → \(_{Z+1}^{A}\) Y → \(_{Z-1}^{A-4}\) K → \(_{Z-1}^{A-4}\) K radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence
(a) α, β, γ
(b) β, α, γ
(c) γ, α, β
(d) β, γ, α

Answer

Answer: (b) β, α, γ


Question 13.
An alpha particle is emitted from \(_{88}\)Ra\(^{226}\), then the product nuclei has:
(a) Z = 84, A = 224
(b) Z = 86, A = 224
(c) Z = 86, A = 222
(d) Z = 82, A = 222

Answer

Answer: (c) Z = 86, A = 222


Question 14.
The Bohr model of atom:
(a) assumes that the angular momentum of electron is quantized
(b) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
(c) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms
(d) predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms

Answer

Answer: (a) assumes that the angular momentum of electron is quantized


Question 15.
X-ray was discovered by :
(a) Becqueral
(b) Marie curie
(c) Roengton
(d) Vanlaw

Answer

Answer: (c) Roengton


Question 16.
Fusion takes place at high temperature because:
(a) Atom are ionised at high temperature
(b) Molecules break up at high temperature
(c) Nuclei break up at high temp.
(d) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei

Answer

Answer: (d) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei


Question 17.
The order of nuclear density is :
(a) 103
(b) 1017
(c) 106
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) 1017


Question 18.
Chadwick was awarded the Nobel prize in Physics in 1935 for his discovery of:
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) neutron


Question 19.
The helium atom does not contain
(a) two protons
(b) two electrons
(c) two neutrons
(d) six nucleons

Answer

Answer: (d) six nucleons


Question 20.
The density of a nucleus is of the order of:
(a) 1015 kg m-3
(b) 1018 kg m-3
(c) 1017 kg m-3
(d) 1016 kg m-3

Answer

Answer: (c) 1017 kg m-3


Question 21.
The isotope generally used for the treatment of cancer is:
(a) I131
(b) Hg197
(c) O15
(d) Co60

Answer

Answer: (d) Co60


Question 22.
When the mass of a sample of a radioactive substance decreases, the mean life of the sample:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remain unchanged
(d) first decreases then increases

Answer

Answer: (c) remain unchanged


Question 23.
What percentage of radioactive substance is left after 5 half lives?
(a) 3.125%
(b) 6.25%
(c) 12.33%
(d) 31%

Answer

Answer: (a) 3.125%


Question 24.
Alpha particle emitted from a radioactive material are:
(a) Helium nuclei
(b) Hydrogen nuclei
(c) Lithium nuclei
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Helium nuclei


Question 25.
Mass is converted into energy according to the relation:
(a) E = me²
(b) E = mgh
(c) E = \(\frac{3}{2}\)me²
(d) E = \(\frac{mgH}{c^2}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) E = me²


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 12 - Atoms

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Atoms

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 12 – Atoms

Question 1.
According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, the radius r of stationary orbit are related to principal quantum number n as:
(a) rg ∝ \(\frac{1}{n^2}\)
(b) rg ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(c) rg ∝ n
(d) rg ∝ n²

Answer

Answer: (d) rg ∝ n²


Question 2.
The mass of a neutron is:
(a) 1.00866 u
(b) 1.0866 u
(c) 1.866 u
(d) 0.1866 u

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.00866 u


Question 3.
Fg and Fe represents the gravitational and electrostatic force respectively between two electrons situated at some distance the ratio \(\frac{F_g}{F_e}\) is if the order of:
(a) 9.8
(b) 109
(c) 1042
(d) 10-42

Answer

Answer: (d) 10-42


Question 4.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by:
(a) Joliot
(b) Becquerel
(c) Pauli
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Joliot


Question 5.
P-decay produces:
(a) isobars
(b) isotopes
(c) isotones
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) isobars


Question 6.
The energy equivalent to one atomic mass unit is :
(a) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(b) 6.02 × 1023 J
(c) 9.31 MeV
(d) 931 MeV

Answer

Answer: (d) 931 MeV


Question 7.
Isobars have the same:
(a) A
(b) Z
(c) N
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) A


Question 8.
Natural radioactivity was discovered by:
(a) Joliot
(b) Becquerel
(c) Pauli
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Becquerel


Question 9.
For ionization of excited Hydrogen atom, the, required energy is:
(a) a little less than 13.6
(b) equal to 13.6
(c) more than 13.6
(d) 3.4 or less

Answer

Answer: (d) 3.4 or less


Question 10.
The total energy that will be released if a nucleus is built from its constituents is called the:
(a) binding energy of the nucleus
(b) binding energy of the solid
(c) binding energy of the atom
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) binding energy of the nucleus


Question 11.
Who explained the splitting of special lines in magnetic field?
(a) Zeeman
(b) Bohr
(c) Summerfield
(d) Einstein

Answer

Answer: (a) Zeeman


Question 12.
An atom stays in an excited state for about:
(a) 10 micro seconds
(b) 10 milli seconds
(c) 10 nano seconds
(d) 10 seconds

Answer

Answer: (c) 10 nano seconds


Question 13.
Transmutation of nuclei was discovered by:
(a) Rutherford
(b) Becquerel
(c) Pauli
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rutherford


Question 14.
The energy equivalent to mass defect is called :
(a) binding energy
(b) internal energy
(c) external energy
(d) enthalpy

Answer

Answer: (a) binding energy


Question 15.
Isotones have the same:
(a) A
(b) Z
(c) N
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (c) N


Question 16.
The binding energy of \(_{2}^{4}\)He is about:
(a) 28.3 eV
(b) 28.3 MeV
(c) 28.3 J
(d) 2.83 MeV

Answer

Answer: (b) 28.3 MeV


Question 17.
The binding energy of a deuteron is about:
(a) 2.22 MeV
(b) 2.22 J
(c) 2.22 eV
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 2.22 MeV


Question 18.
Half-life of a substance depends on:
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 19.
The concept of electron spin was introduced by:
(a) Becquerel
(b) Goudsmit
(c) Millikan
(d) Uhlenbeek and Goudsmit

Answer

Answer: (d) Uhlenbeek and Goudsmit


Question 20.
The principle that a quantum orbital cannot be occupied by more than two electrons was given by:
(a) Pauli
(b) Millikan
(c) Hund
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Pauli


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 11 - Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 11 – Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 1.
The momentum of an electron that emits a wavelength of 2 Ã…. will be:
(a) 6.4 × 10-36 kgms-1
(b) 3.3 × 10-24 kgms-1
(c) 3.3 × 10-34 kgms-1
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 3.3 × 10-24 kgms-1


Question 2.
Name the scientists who first studied the passage of electricity through fluids to establish the electrical nature of matter:
(a)Millikan
(b) Planck
(c) Faraday
(d) Boyle

Answer

Answer: (c) Faraday


Question 3.
The different stages of discharge in a discharge tube can be explained on the basis of:
(a) the wave nature of light
(b) the dual nature of light
(c) wave nature of electrons
(d) the collision between the charged particles emitted from the cathode the atoms of the gas in the tube

Answer

Answer: (d) the collision between the charged particles emitted from the cathode the atoms of the gas in the tube


Question 4.
Protons and alpha particles have the same de-Broglie wavelength. What is same for both of them ?
(a) Energy
(b) Time period
(c) Frequency
(d) Momentum

Answer

Answer: (d) Momentum


Question 5.
Millikan’s oil drop experiment makes use of:
(a) Stokes’ law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Gas equation
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem

Answer

Answer: (a) Stokes’ law


Question 6.
Kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends upon :
(a) frequency
(b) intensity
(c) nature of atmosphere surrounding the electrons
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) frequency


Question 7.
X-rays are:
(a) deflected by an electric field
(b) deflected by a magnetic field
(c) deflected by both electric and magnetic fields
(d) not deflected by electric and magnetic fields

Answer

Answer: (d) not deflected by electric and magnetic fields


Question 8.
De-Broglie wavelength of a body of mass m and kinetic energy E is given by (symbols have their usual meanings):
(a) \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}}\)
(b) \(\frac{h}{2mE}\)
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{h}\)
(d) \(\frac{h}{mE}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}}\)


Question 9.
In photo electric emission, for alkali metals the threshold frequency lies in the:
(a) visible region
(b) ultraviolet region
(c) infrared region
(d) far end of the infrared region

Answer

Answer: (a) visible region


Question 10.
The charge of a photo electron is :
(a) 9.1 × 10-31 C
(b) 9.1 × 10-27 C
(c) 9.1 × 10-24 C
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these


Question 11.
The ratio of specific charge of an alpha particle to the proton is:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 2


Question 12.
Which of the following radiations cannot eject photo electrons?
(a) ultraviolet
(b) infrared
(c) visible
(d) X-rays

Answer

Answer: (b) infrared


Question 13.
What is the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volts?
(a) \(\frac{12.3}{V^2}\) Ã…
(b) \(\frac{12.3}{V}\) Ã…
(c) \(\frac{12.2}{V^2}\) Ã…
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{12.3}{V^2}\) Ã…


Question 14.
What is the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 100 volts?
(a) 12.3 Ã…
(b) 1.23 Ã…
(c) 0.123 Ã…
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.23 Ã…


Question 15.
In Thomson’s experiment number of parabola gives :
(a) the no. of electrons present in element
(b) the no. of proton present in element
(c) the no. of neutrons present in element
(d) the no. of isotopes of the element present

Answer

Answer: (d) the no. of isotopes of the element present


Question 16.
What is the de-Broglie wavelength of a proton accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volts?
(a) \(\frac{12.3}{√V}\) Ã…
(b) \(\frac{12.3}{V}\) Ã…
(c) \(\frac{12.2}{V^2}\) Ã…
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 17.
which Characteristic of a target does the Mosley’s law relate the frequency of X-rays?
(a) density
(b) atomic number
(c) atomic weight
(d) interatomic space

Answer

Answer: (b) atomic number


Question 18.
When a yellow light is incident on a surface, no electrons are emitted while green light can emit electrons. If the red light is incident on the surface then:
(a) no electrons are emitted
(b) photons are emitted
(c) electrons of higher energy are emitted
(d) electrons of lower energy are emitted

Answer

Answer: (a) no electrons are emitted


Question 19.
De-Broglie equation states the:
(a) dual nature
(b) particle nature
(c) wave nature
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) dual nature


Question 20.
The de-Broglie wavelength of particle of mass 1 mg moving with a velocity of 1 ms-1, in terms of Planck’s constant h, is given by (in metre):
(a) 105 h
(b) 106 h
(c) 10-3 h
(d) 103 h

Answer

Answer: (b) 106 h


Question 21.
The work function of photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. The threshold frequency will be equal to:
(a) 8 × 1014 Hz
(b) 8 × 1010 Hz
(c) 5 × 1010 Hz
(d) 4 × 1014 Hz

Answer

Answer: (a) 8 × 1014 Hz


Question 22.
The strength of photoelectric current depends upon :
(a) angle of incident radiation
(b) frequency of incident radiation
(c) intensity of incident radiation
(d) distance between anode and cathode

Answer

Answer: (b) frequency of incident radiation


Question 23.
Evidence of the wave nature of light cannot be obtained from:
(a) diffraction
(b) interference
(c) doppler effect
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (d) reflection


Question 24.
The number of photons of frequency n present in energy E, in terms of Planck’s constant h:
(a) \(\frac{E}{nh}\)
(b) nhE
(c) \(\frac{nh}{E}\)
(d) \(\frac{nE}{h}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{E}{nh}\)


Question 25.
Compared to liquids and solids, gases are:
(a) good conductors of electricity
(b) best conductors of electricity
(c) very poor conductors of electricity
(d) good or bad conductors of electricity depending upon the nature of the gas

Answer

Answer: (c) very poor conductors of electricity


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics - MCQ and Online Tests - Unit 10 - Wave Optics

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Wave Optics

Every year CBSE conducts board exams for 12th standard. These exams are very competitive to all the students. So our website provides online tests for all the 12th subjects. These tests are also very effective and useful for those who preparing for competitive exams like NEET, JEE, CA etc. It can boost their preparation level and confidence level by attempting these chapter wise online tests.

These online tests are based on latest CBSE Class 12 syllabus. While attempting these our students can identify the weak lessons and continuously practice those lessons for attaining high marks. It also helps to revise the NCERT textbooks thoroughly.


 

CBSE Class 12 Physics – MCQ and Online Tests – Unit 10 – Wave Optics

Question 1.
For sustained interference, we need two sources which
emit radiations :
(a) of the same intensity
(b) of the same amplitude
(c) having a constant phase difference
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) having a constant phase difference


Question 2.
When a polaroid is rotated, the intensity of light does not vary. The incident light may be:
(a) unpolarised
(b) completely polarised
(c) partially plane polarised
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) unpolarised


Question 3.
Two sources of light are said to be coherent when both give out light waves of the same:
(a) amplitude and phase
(b) intensity and wavelength
(c) speed
(d) wavelength and a constant phase difference

Answer

Answer: (d) wavelength and a constant phase difference


Question 4.
When a polaroid is rotated, the intensity of light varies but never reduces to zero. It shows that the incident light is:
(a) unpolarised
(b) completely plane polarised
(c) partially plane polarised
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) partially plane polarised


Question 5.
The intensity of light emerging from the two slits, in Young’s experiment is in the ratio 1 : 4. The ratio of,the intensity of the minimum to that of the consecutive maximum will be:
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 1 : 16
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 : 9


Question 6.
What happens if one of the slits, say S1 in Young’s double , slit experiment-is covered with a glass plate which absorbs half the intensity of light from it?
(a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity
(b) The bright fringes become brighter and the dark fringes become darker
(c) The fringe width decreases
(d) No fringes will be observed

Answer

Answer: (a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity


Question 7.
Poisson’s bright spot was discovered by:
(a) Fresnel
(b) Rayleigh
(c) Poisson
(d) Fraunhoffer

Answer

Answer: (c) Poisson


Question 8.
What is the reason for your answer to the above question?
(a) The two sources do not emit light of the same wavelength
(b) The two sources emit waves which travel with different speeds
(c) The two sources emit light waves of different amplitudes
(d) There is not constant phase difference between the waves emitted by the two sources

Answer

Answer: (d) There is not constant phase difference between the waves emitted by the two sources


Question 9.
The theory of expanding universe is confirmed by the observation of the spectral lines of the star, which shows :
(a) green shift
(b) red shift
(c) violet shift
(d) yellow shift

Answer

Answer: (b) red shift


Question 10.
What happens to the interference pattern the two slits S1 and S2 in Young’s double experiment are illuminated by two independent but identical sources?
(a) The intensity of the bright fringes doubled
(b) The intensity of the bright fringes becomes four times
(c) Two sets of interference fringes overlap
(d) No interference pattern is observed

Answer

Answer: (d) No interference pattern is observed


Question 11.
The application of Doppler effect are:
(a) Doppler spectrometer
(b) Doppler radius
(c) Doppler velocimeter
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 12.
A single slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light What happened the red light is replaced by the blue light?
(a) There is no change in diffraction pattern
(b) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded
(d) Diffraction fringes become broader and farther apart
(d) The diffraction pattern disappear

Answer

Answer: (b) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded


Question 13.
Which of the following is conserved when light waves interefere?
(a) phase
(b) intensity
(c) amplitude
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these


Question 14.
The angle of minimum deviation of a prism depends upon the aggie of:
(a) incidence
(b) reflection
(c) prism
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) prism


Question 15.
Out of the following Statements which is not correct?
(a) When unpolarised light passes through Nicol’s prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarized
(b) Nicol’s prism works on the principle of double refraction and T.l.R.
(c) Nicol’s prism can be used both the produce and analyse polarized light
(d) Calcite and Quartz are both double refracting crystal

Answer

Answer: (a) When unpolarised light passes through Nicol’s prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarized


Question 16.
In Young’s double slit experiment, a maximum is obtained when the path difference between the interfering waves is (n ∈ l):
(a) nλ
(b) n \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
(c) (2n + 1) \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
(d) (2n – 1) \(\frac{λ}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) nλ


Question 17.
In vacuum, the speed of light depends upon :
(a) frequency
(b) velocity
(c) wave length
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 18.
Polaroid glasses is used in sun glasses because :
(a) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization
(b) It is fashionable
(c) It has good colour
(d) It is cheaper

Answer

Answer: (a) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization


Question 19.
In Young double slit experiment, a minimum is obtained when the phase difference of the superposing waves, is (n ∈ l):
(a) nπ
(b) (n + \(\frac{1}{2}\))Ï€
(c) (2n + 1)Ï€
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (c) (2n + 1)Ï€


Question 20.
The fringe width (β) of a diffraction pattern and the slit width d are related as:
(a) β ∝ d
(b) β ∝\(\frac{1}{d}\)
(c) β ∝ √d
(d) β ∝ \(\frac{1}{d^2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) β ∝\(\frac{1}{d}\)


Question 21.
Between the slit is id\ the distance between the slit and the screen is α, with light of wavelength λ, the number of fringe observed per metre on the screen is:
(a) \(\frac{δy}{α}\)
(b) \(\frac{Dα}{λ}\)
(c) \(\frac{α}{Dλ}\)
(d) \(\frac{λd}{D}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{δy}{α}\)


Question 22.
A person cannot see object clearly beyond 50 cm. The pow er of the lens to correct his vision is :
(a) +0.5 dioptre
(b) -0.5 dioptre
(c) -2 dioptre
(d) +2 dioptre

Answer

Answer: (c) -2 dioptre


Question 23.
The focal length of the lens is 50 cm; then its power is:
(a) +2D
(b) +1D
(c) -2D
(d) -1D

Answer

Answer: (a) +2D


Question 24.
he minimum value of the refractive index is:
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) less than 1 but not zero
(d) more than 1

Answer

Answer: (c) less than 1 but not zero


Question 25.
Polarization of light prove the :
(a) corpuscular nature of light
(b) quantum nature of light
(c) Transverse wave nature of light
(d) Longitudinal wave nature of light

Answer

Answer: (c) Transverse wave nature of light


Question 26.
A phase difference of 5π corresponds to a path difference (in terms of λ) of:
(a) 5λ
(b) 10λ.
(c) 5λ/2
(d) 2λ

Answer

Answer: (c) 5λ/2


Question 27.
A polaroid produces a strong beam of light which is :
(a) circularly polarised
(b) elliptically polarised
(c) plane polarised
(d) unpolarised

Answer

Answer: (c) plane polarised


Question 28.
In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit and the screen is doubled and the separation between the slit is reduced to half. The fringe width:
(a) is doubled
(b) become four time
(c) is halfed
(d) remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) become four time


Question 29.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the central point on the screen is:
(a) bright
(b) dark
(c) first bright and later dark
(d) first dark and later bright

Answer

Answer: (a) bright


Question 30.
Images of a distant lamp seen through a fire cloth rotate on rotating the cloth. This is due to the phenomenon of:
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarisation
(d) scattering

Answer

Answer: (b) diffraction


Question 31.
In a Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit is 1 mm and the distance of screen from the slit is 1 m. If light of wavelength 6000 A is used then the fringe width is:
(a) 0.4 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 0.6 mm
(d) 0.8 mm

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.6 mm


Question 32.
C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel prize for his work associated with which of the following phenomenon of radiations?
(a) scattering
(b) diffraction
(c) interference
(d) polarisation

Answer

Answer: (a) scattering


Question 33.
Light takes 10-10 to cross a glass slab. What is the thickness of the glass slab?
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 3.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 cm


Question 34.
A young’s double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of interference fringes formed on a screen is :
(a) parabola
(b) straight line
(c) circle
(d) hyperbola

Answer

Answer: (b) straight line


Question 35.
A monochromatic light is refracted from air into a glass of refractive index µ. The ratio of the wavelengths of the incident and the refracted waves is:
(a) 1 : µ
(b) 1 : µ²
(c) µ : 1
(d) µ² : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) µ : 1


 

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